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The Council of Chalcedon

dzheremi

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prodromos

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Simply put, because it violated our preexisting Christological tradition.
Does it though? Doesn't the subsequent Council demonstrate that their fears were unfounded?
 
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dzheremi

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Does it though? Doesn't the subsequent Council demonstrate that their fears were unfounded?

I would say instead that the fact that you had to have the subsequent council at all shows that our fears were very well-founded, as it is recorded that Nestorius and those of his party felt that the Tome had vindicated their position, and was in agreement with their Christology. This was the entire background of the Armenians' (who were not present at Chalcedon and would not learn about it until later) rejection of the Council, because their Nestorian opponents in Persia had repeatedly attacked the Armenians on doctrinal grounds in the years subsequent to the Council, "being strengthened by the Council of Chalcedon" (Sarekin Sarkissian, The Council of Chalcedon and the Armenian Church, 1975, p. 203, but see p. 197 and following for his treatment of the two letters To the Orthodox in Persia by HH Catholicos Babgen, the first of which was written prior to learning that the Council of Chalcedon had happened).

The fifth council did indeed deal with the infestation of Nestorians and semi-Nestorians who had glommed on to the Chalcedonian position for their own gains, as our own Ephesus III in 475 did with regard to Eutyches and any who might adhere to errors of his type among us -- casting them all out definitively -- but when it's all a package deal thanks to how you guys view councils, what are we to do with it?

We don't accept it on doctrinal grounds, and you guys don't accept that we don't accept it, so here we are. ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
 
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Erik Nelson

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Not making stuff up, seems noteworthy & worth knowing:


"Among the many origin stories attached to [Byzantium / Constantinople], few are as durable as the tale of Byzas and the “land of the blind.” According to the familiar version, Byzas, the legendary founder of Byzantium [7th century BC], consulted the Oracle at Delphi before establishing his colony. He was told to settle opposite "the land of the blind". When he reached the Bosphorus and saw Chalcedon (today’s Kadıköy) already standing on the Asian shore, he concluded that its founders must have been blind, since they had failed to choose the superior site on the European side. He then founded Byzantium on the peninsula that would, centuries later, become Constantinople, and then Istanbul."

Byzas, the founder of Byzantium, mocked the Chalcedonians for being bat-blind and choosing Chalcedon over superior alternatives. Approximately 1100 years later, Byzantium / Constantinople chose Chalcedon-ian doctrines over alternatives.

Means what it means (doesn't mean what it doesn't mean). "They who were blind, now they doth see", perhaps?
 
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