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I never said I do not believe that Moses could have copied and wrote down the Ten Commandments- but its not stated anywhere in Scripture.
Hi, thank you for explaining that more clearly.
So here is the question, why then the Sabbath command includes in the law given in Sinai which point to Christ? Luke 24:44
Thanks
To be clear, I am not certain the command was given to man in the garden. I was just spelling out the logic of their assertion.
I was an Adventist minister for years, so I held to the same view as they expressed, and argued here at CF for some time in favor of it.
But over time I started to see things that didn't match up with that.
I tend to favor the view it was given to Israel as a sign, as Ex. 31 says, that it pointed not only to their Creator, but their Redeemer from Egypt as Deuteronomy 5 says, that it is a sign in addition to the law by which one lives as Ezek 20 says, that it was one of the appointed times, with sacrifices, etc. as Numbers 28,29, Ezekiel 45, 46 says, and that it is still, like Passover, like Pentecost, etc. a statute forever with Israel.
Moses was writing from the view of an Israelite, and related how God rested on the 7th day from His creative work--which to my knowledge all agree with that hold to God creating in 7 days. And Moses relates that He blessed the 7th day and sanctified it.
But we don't see any observation of it until Ex. 16, it is said to be a sign in Ex. 31 and a covenant with Israel.
Genesis and Exodus form one continuous narrative when you read them. Exodus therefore would not be quoting Genesis, but rather Genesis is alluding to God's words from Sinai, which Moses heard. Genesis and Exodus were written after that, as the one work relates the various things after they happened.
So Moses certainly rightly points out that God rested on the 7th day. And He blessed it. And He sanctified it. But it says He did that as a sign with Israel. It is holy to them. And it is included with the other appointed times, though most prominent among them.
Similarly, in Mark 2
Mark 2:25-28
25 But He said to them, “Have you never read what David did when he was in need and hungry, he and those with him: 26 how he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not lawful to eat except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were with him?”
27 And He said to them, “The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath. 28 Therefore the Son of Man is also Lord of the Sabbath.” (NKJV)
The issue was that the Pharisees were condemning Jesus, but He was the one who instituted the Sabbath to start with. They were judging Him, but He is in fact the Son of Man, the one in Daniel 7 who comes into the presence of the Ancient of Days who is seated on the throne to judge, and the Son of Man inherits all the nations. He will judge them, not the other way around, just as we see Him saying the the chief priest during His trial, they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds.
Matthew 26:63-64
63 But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest answered and said to Him, “I put You under oath by the living God: Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!”
64 Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.” (NKJV)
So I see the "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath. Therefore the Son of Man is also Lord of the Sabbath” as indicating it was not slavish dedication to rules that was the point, but that the Sabbath was for man's benefit. And Jesus is the right judge of the Sabbath.
Where I would differ with Adventists is that they tend to stress ανθρωπον as being man, a reference to Adam at creation, or perhaps more properly in Genesis 1:27 in the LXX, a reference to mankind, man and woman.
Whereas, I think the emphasis is more on the word play to emphasize His favorite title for Himself, the Son of Man, which the Jewish leaders clearly understood as reigning over all things, and judging, as it fits the question in the narrative better--They are judging Jesus, but He is the judge, and the Lord of the Sabbath, and knows what true Sabbath keeping is. And I don't think Jesus' point in the narrative was to point out that the Sabbath was made for all men, not just the Jews, as that didn't even seem to be part of His accusers concern.
Adventists say it is speaking of the Sabbath being made for man at creation--but that assumes what they are trying to prove. We don't see any text saying it was given to Man at creation, which if that were a major point of emphasis, you would think we would. They supply the "at creation" here when making that argument.
Moreover, which men the Sabbath was made for seems to be spelled out in plain statements:
Exodus 31:16-17
16 Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant. 17 It is a sign between Me and the children of Israel forever; for in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, and on the seventh day He rested and was refreshed.’ ” (NKJV)
Deuteronomy 5:15
15 And remember that you were a slave in the land of Egypt, and the LORD your God brought you out from there by a mighty hand and by an outstretched arm; therefore the LORD your God commanded you to keep the Sabbath day. (NKJV)
Ezekiel 20:10-12
10 “Therefore I made them go out of the land of Egypt and brought them into the wilderness. 11 And I gave them My statutes and showed them My judgments, which, if a man does, he shall live by them.’ 12 Moreover I also gave them My Sabbaths, to be a sign between them and Me, that they might know that I am the LORD who sanctifies them. (NKJV)
In the latter text God says He gave them His statutes and judgments which, if a man does, he shall live, MOREOVER, he gave them the Sabbath to be a sign between God and Israel. The Sabbath is distinguished from the other commands by which a man lives.
Both sides are trying to make sense of all the Biblical data. I have been on both sides of the question, so at some point, either then, or now, I was wrong. And that is sobering. Here are some things I came to understand:
- the Jewish believers in Acts 21 kept being zealous for the whole law (we see this includes Pentecost for example in the case of Paul).
- The Gentile Christians were not required to be circumcised and keep the law of Moses.
- the OT context regarding the appointed times (Numbers 28,29 and Ezekiel 45, 46) included the weekly Sabbath, and this is the background to Col. 2 They are all shadows which point to the reality. But the Colossians need not concern themselves with circumcision or the appointed times, because they are complete in Him.
- the Sabbath is said to be a sign with Israel throughout their generations
- The Sabbath is said to point to their Redeemer from Egypt as well as their Creator
- Ezekiel 20 says that the Sabbath was a sign in addition to the laws by which one lives
- there is no record of anyone being commanded to keep the Sabbath, or observing the Sabbath until Exodus 16
- Romans 14 is broadly stated, regarding observing or not observing to the Lord.
- The law was not just the ten commandments, and Jesus refers to both commands from the ten, and those out of it in Matthew 5 when He says that the law will not pass away until all is fulfilled.
- Exodus was not quoting Genesis in regards to the Sabbath, and both were written after the command was given by God in Ex. 16, and spoken by God in Ex. 20 as Genesis and Exodus are one narrative, and relate that history, and the command for Moses to write in a book what He was told.
- When Romans 2 spoke of those who did not have the law having the law written on the heart it referred to following the conscience and what God revealed about Himself in general revelation. They were not keeping Passover or the Sabbath , but they were able to know that God was the Creator, see His power, and knew that He required us not to steal, kill, etc. but to love Him and others.
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