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You sound very much like me, here, right up until you say they (the OT saints) believed but could not be born again, nor be in Christ. By grace you are saved, through faith, and that, not of yourselves; it is the gift of God. Again: You are saying that they were still 'in the flesh' as described by Romans 8, Ephesians 2 and several other places, "dead in [their] sin and trespasses", and not 'in the Spirit', not "made...alive" no? So how can they believe salvifically while still at enmity with God, and unable to please God? Are you saying that Abraham's faith did not please God? Romans 8: "7 For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot. 8 Those who are in the flesh cannot please God."It was silvic faith in promise. It's simple math. Indwelling, in Christ, born again, justified. Not indwelt, not in Christ, not born again. They were given a promise of that salvation. They believed, but could not be born again, not in Christ. I keep posting Scripture, and you simply keep denying it.
I'm saying that "the initial faith" is a fiction you have (or someone you agree with) invented in order to justify your position that nobody before Pentecost was indwelled nor born again.Mark, you're missing the point. It's true, that a man indwelt with the Holy Spirit, is 'in Christ' and born again. It's also true that a man who is not indwelt with the Holy Spirit, is not in Christ, and is not born again. That's a simple formula that we all agree on. What I'm saying is that the initial faith is not from being born again. It comes from somewhere else. It may still be of God, in some generic way, but it's not from being born again. You're putting the cart before the horse to save an unbiblical system that is not taught in Scripture. OT promise, NT fulfillment of that Promise. Nobody was in Christ before Pentecost. That's where people are justified and born again, in Christ.
And in that promise, they had "faith, and that, not of [them]selves...".All they had in the OT was the promise.
Your argument does not answer my use of Ezekiel, but to assert denial. Again, I am not saying that Pentecost is not the future fulfillment of the prophecy, and that, in spades. I'm saying the prophecy, as shown in the context, is also fulfilled in the past. 'Dual fulfillment of prophecy' is not my invention. Dual fulfillment - WikipediaTwo things simultaneously true, one promise. The Promise of the Father. Places us in Christ, and places Christ in us. John 14:9-20...all of it, very important. Especially the last verse. Being baptized into Christ with the Holy Spirit indwelling... vs 20 "At that day you will know that I am in My Father, and you in Me, and I in you."
Acts 1:4-5 And being assembled together with them, He commanded them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the Promise of the Father, "which," He said, "you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now."
8 But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth."
Do you think that it's a coincidence that all those Gentile countries that the Jews were dispersed to over the years were all represented at Pentecost? Look at Acts 2:9-11. Then Peter tells of the prophecy from Joel. Some were Jews by birth, and some were proselytes. But this is God fulfilling the context that you provided for Ezekiel 36:26-27. The Gospel message, and the testimony of what happened goes back with them to those Gentile nations, even reaching the non believing Jews. Apply the context in Ezekiel Scripture that you quoted to that.
Mark Quayle said:
I'll try to remember to get to this, below, because you do this same temporally dependent reasoning below, more explicitly. By the way, Scripture doesn't say that is why nobody had yet ascended.
I'm more than aware of the verse you were referencing. Repeating it does nothing for your argument. What I said is (added emphasis for clarity), "Scripture doesn't say THAT is WHY nobody had yet ascended." Your argument remains void.John 3:13 No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven.
Where does what I say disagree with those passages (Hebrews 11:13, 39-40)? You say, "Indwelling equals regeneration." You are not wrong, there. Did I say different?Hebrews 11:13, 39-40 These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off were assured of them, embraced them and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth....And all these, having obtained a good testimony through faith, did not receive the promise, God having provided something better for us, that they should not be made perfect apart from us.
Mark, your understanding is extremely inconsistent according to Scripture. Indwelling equals regeneration, remember?
That last sentence is your invention, as I have said, and not demonstrated nor claimed in scripture. It is your addition, for the sake of your thesis. Find it in scripture and show me, without the circular argument you have depended on up til now.Baptism places us in Christ, and there we are placed into His death (Galatians 2:20), and raised up with Him (Ephesians 2:6). No indwelling, no placed into Christ, no born again. The indwelling is the result of initial faith.
Yes, I agree. Ironically, notice the monergistic nature of that verse!1 Corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body--whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free--and have all been made to drink into one Spirit.
No. I showed that they do not prove your thesis—not that they prove mine. I did not try to have it both ways; I showed that either of two ways I could understand the passage showed no need for your thesis. BTW, both ways show her coming to faith by the indwelling of the Spirit. Born again from above. Born of the Spirit. Regenerated.The way that you used some verses in Acts as proof texts that God must make a person born again for a person to believe. But as Scripture plainly shows, Lydia was a woman who feared God. She was a OT believer. According to Calvinism, that means that when she came to that OT faith, she was already born again and justified. You can't have it both ways, Mark. How did she come to an OT faith by your reasoning? To be consistent, you would need to answer that she was born again to believe in the OT. Then, how is her heart being opened in the NT to believe the Gospel relevant? According to Calvinism, she was already justified and saved. Same with Cornelius, and the Gentiles. All OT believers. And salvation came to them, when they received the placing into Christ with the Holy Spirit.
Well, I'll give you this—you finally hold to some non-temporally-dependent consistency with that paragraph —or maybe I should say, temporal duality. But your assertion there still depends on what it does not prove. Circular argument.Yes, it's an inconsistency that even you used when you quoted Lydia's heart being opened. She was already an OT believer. According to Calvinism, already indwelt, placed into Christ and born again, justified. I'll make its simple. When was Lydia saved? My answer, by promise when she came to faith in the OT, by reality, when she trusted in the Gospel as recorded in Acts and was placed into Christ by way of the Holy Spirit indwelling, the Promise of the Father.
"When was Lydia saved?" When she believed, by way of the Spirit's indwelling and 'Spirit-generated' faith. And not otherwise.
No, it is not what they say, unless some fringe elements, like a guy I debate with rather regularly. Demonstrate that is "what they say."When was she justified? Romans 3:25. She needed to be in Christ believing the Gospel to be saved. Since she was an OT true believer, she was predestined from an OT faith to a NT faith. (Romans 8:28-29). We are only elect 'in Christ'. Yet again, Calvinism puts the cart before the horse to save the system. They claim that every saved person was already in Christ from the foundations of the world. It's insane.
Yes, a person cannot be saved, born again, and not be placed 'in Christ'. I agree with that whole portion I highlighted and italicized, above. But I do NOT agree with your use of those statements. They do not make your case.How can a person be saved, born again, and not in Christ? With the Spirit you are in Christ and saved, without the Spirit you not in Christ and are not saved.
Again, the notion—'initial belief'—is your invention. If you mean only the kind of belief that Satan also has, the notion is bogus for being effective in fulfilling some promise to which God is obligated.It's the life that is a gift. What life do you have apart from Christ? You're assuming the system into it, that the life begins before a person initially believes, but that idea is hostile to Scripture.
The life is the result of the indwelling. The indwelling is always the result of believing.
I agree the life is the result of the indwelling. But you have not yet shown the sequence: "The indwelling is always the result of believing." You have repeatedly shown a sequence of words, but which are not of causative nor even of temporal sequence. Basically, this: "Believe and be saved", as though the command implies the ability to obey. Again, Romans 8:8 and so many other passages apply here. Those at enmity with God cannot obey nor please God, nor are they even willing to. They may even think themselves to do so by surface compliance, but they have not submitted themselves to God, except by mere emotion. They do not have it within themselves to do so in fact. That is only by the power of the Spirit of God. Look at your own constancy, if you must extract doctrine from personal experience. But Scripture agrees with what I am saying. Romans 8 and Ephesians 2 and 1 Corinthians 2 and so many other places. Your narrative does not.
Well, no. I see them simultaneous, but, by causative sequence: The Holy Spirit's indwelling causing the faith through which we are saved, (and that not of ourselves.) Monergism. You've not demonstrated your thesis, but only asserted it and by circular argument attempted to prove it.Because you see salvation beginning before a person comes to faith. That's your system that says that, not Scripture. The life is always the result of the indwelling. We are born again as a result of the indwelling. To fix that huge inconsistency, Calvinism places the indwelling before the initial faith. It's simply not Biblical. I've shown this.
I agree the life is not the initial faith. If "initial faith" is not the Spirit-given faith, it is not effective, nor part of the "order of salvation". —it is an invention.The life is not the initial faith. I've proven this already. The life is the ongoing faith that results from the indwelling, which places us in Christ.
Now I will admit to one thing that one might want to term, 'initial faith', which is the mind beginning to arrange principles and memorize words, which God uses monergistically to open the eyes and heart. That is to say, the Gospel is effective—God's word "will not return to him void". But that of itself is not the faith that saves. Until (1 Cor 2:14) the person can discern by the Spirit the things of the Spirit, they do not have salvific faith and are not yet saved. And the only way a person can discern the things of the Spirit, is by the Spirit. —Old Testament or New.
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