Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
But it’s not in the Scripture; and that’s what the problem is. Church fathers didn’t always get everything right.
Right, "or continues up to" is an alternative to "ends," that's what the word "or" means.
Read it with comprehension.
There was no fruit left to pick, the workers were idle until the end of the day.
The passage describes Joseph's condition of "not knowing her" up until the birth of Jesus. It says nothing about his condition afterwards. Luke's focus is on the fact that Jesus was not conceived through sexual union. He is not stating that Joseph and Mary had sex after Jesus birth, which would have absolutely nothing to do with the Gospel. Your interpretation suggests Luke is giving us irrelevant intimate details of Joseph and Mary's supposed sex life. I think you would agree that nothing irrelevant is in the Gospels.
Revelation was gradual until Christ came, after which it was revealed in full.
They established the means by which that was done, in a council of elders.
Just because their teaching does not agree with your interpretation of Scripture, doesn't mean your interpretation is correct.
Doesn't it? What about:
Sorry, I misunderstood your post to be saying that the bible doesn't say where Mary was living when the Archangel came to her.
Show us in the Greek text where this is true.What I find funny, almost bodering on hysterical, is that Jerome, who translated the NT Greek text (the text some have brought up here) into Latin believed that Mary was a perpetual virgin based on his translation from the Greek. But wait, some on this forum know better
Mary was pregnant until Jesus was born. But... since "until" means nothing about her condition afterwards; It must mean that she remained perpetually pregnant! "Read it with comprehension!" instead of cognitive dissonance.
Agreed the canon of Scripture is compete!
Again, the canon of Scripture is complete!
Except their interpretation on the perpetual virginity of Mary, isn't even in the Scripture!
The real issue here isn't about whether I've interpreted Scripture correctly. It's about the fact that what you believe isn't even in the Scripture.
Prove from Scripture that Joseph was married prior to being married to Mary!
