It is not quite clear whether what you say "directly contradicts the word of God" is Good Friday, Easter Sunday, or both. In regards to Friday, the Bible itself given it repeatedly says the crucifixion occurred prior to Passover. I know the claim is to say that the Sabbath the Crucifixion was before was not the weekly Sabbath and that one needs to have it happen on Thursday or Wednesday to fit the three days and three nights. But
there are reasons to believe the three days and three nights was counted inclusively, allowing for a Friday crucifixion and Sunday resurrection, and it is odd indeed that the Gospels, which considered the reader ignorant enough of Jewish customs to do things like say that the Passover lamb was sacrificed on the first day of unleavened bread, would have not made a point of clearly alerting the reader that the Sabbath it refers to wasn't the weekly one.
But Good Friday is of lesser importance here; what we are talking about is Easter Sunday. Even if it should have been Good Thursday or Good Wednesday, that wouldn't change the question of whether Easter was Sunday or not. But if you were saying that Jesus rising from the dead "is contrary to the bible itself", that doesn't make much sense. I suppose someone could argue that Jesus had resurrected before and was just waiting around in the tomb until Sunday, but it obviously wouldn't be "contrary to the bible itself" to say Jesus only resurrected on Sunday.
And other, more accurate, encyclopedias correctly state that these supposed "pagan in origin" things actually don't come from paganism at all.
The actual situation is far more complex than this. One writer, Bede, when talking about the origin of the names of the English months (we no longer use those months), asserts that Eosturmonab was named after a goddess named Eostre for which there were feasts in that month. As noted
here, this is the entirety of what Bede says about Eostre:
In olden time the English people -- for it did not seem fitting to me that I should speak of other people's observance of the year and yet be silent about my own nation's -- calculated their months according to the course of the moon. Hence, after the manner of the Greeks and the Romans (the months) take their name from the Moon, for the Moon is called mona and the month monath.
The first month, which the Latins call January, is Giuli; February is called Solmonath; March Hrethmonath; April, Eosturmonath; May, Thrimilchi; June, Litha; July, also Litha; August, Weodmonath; September, Halegmonath; October, Winterfilleth; November, Blodmonath; December, Giuli, the same name by which January is called. ...
Nor is it irrelevant if we take the time to translate the names of the other months. ... Hrethmonath is named for their goddess Hretha, to whom they sacrificed at this time. Eosturmonath has a name which is now translated "Paschal month", and which was once called after a goddess of theirs named Eostre, in whose honour feasts were celebrated in that month. Now they designate that Paschal season by her name, calling the joys of the new rite by the time-honoured name of the old observance. Thrimilchi was so called because in that month the cattle were milked three times a day...
The problem is that aside from this brief reference, we have no references to Eostre and have found no relics dedicated to her. Bede may have had access to things we do not... but he also could have just been relying on incorrect information. Remember, he attributes the name of the prior month to a goddess we
also have no clear evidence of outside of his remark!
Even if we were to suppose Bede's information on the source of this month's name was right, Easter appears to have taken its name not from Eostre, but from the
month. The translation above says "they designated that Paschal season by her name", but it appears a more plausible translation would be to say "
its name" referring to the month, as is explained here:
The word "Easter" is used only in English for the Christian commemoration of the death and resurrection of Christ. In most languages the word is passover (pasch), or some version of it. This is indeed what Easter is, the Christian version of passover. That's why it moves: Jesus was Jewish, and li
www.roger-pearse.com
For the reasons the link gives, it seems more plausible to me that Bede is saying it comes from the month.
But let us suppose that Bede's information on Eostre was completely correct and that it came from the goddess rather than the month. That would, at most, be an argument that in
English we should use a different name. For you see, in most of the world--and as TheLiturgist
just pointed out to you--the word "Easter" is not used at all. In Spanish--which more people speak natively than English!--the word is
pascua. Clearly this has nothing to do with any Eostre. At most, the English name is taken from this goddess--and again, even that is very far from certain.
But here we turn from a claim that at least has some kind of proof to it, even if it was weak, to nonsense. As noted, the above quotes from Bede are we have on this alleged goddess. Do you see him say she was the goddess of spring, fertility, and new life? No. So this is total speculation. You also claim she was "the
great Anglo-Saxon goddess" even though apparently she wasn't "great" enough to leave a mark larger than an offhand reference!
More made-up claims; there is not any real evidence of any of these, outside of the ones that can just be considered alternate spellings of Eostre. Indeed, Ostara was a conjecture. In the 19th century Jacob Grimm was aware that there was no evidence of Eostre outside of Bede's brief remark and that for this reason there was considerable skepticism that there ever was any Eostre who was believed in. But he respected Bede and wanted to assert that Bede was right. As part of his argument on why Bede was right, he
conjectured the possibility of a corresponding German goddess named Ostara. That is where Ostara came from: A 19th century conjecture. This is why you will not find any reference to Ostara prior to him.
It is not clear where your claim that "eastre" was the ancient word for spring comes from. When I look up eastre in an
Old English Dictionary, it simply tells me it's an alternate spelling for Easter.
Even if we were to assume that everything you just claimed is true, and you (again) provide zero evidence, this would apply to the Jewish Passover also, as it occurs after the spring equinox. Are you saying that the Jewish Passover comes from sacrificing of virgins and orgiastic sexual activities?
It is indeed true that the Greek word for Easter (and Passover) is Pascha. But this also renders some of what you were writing before irrelevant! The word "Easter" emerged in English, most other languages don't resemble Easter at all (many simply get it from "pascha") and therefore even if the word in English goes back to Eostre--and as was noted, there are serious questions about this--it wouldn't mean anything in regards to the holiday itself.
And here you throw out some claims with no evidence. You offer no evidence there was any "ancient pagan custom of welcoming the sun god at the vernal equinox" or, even if there was, how Easter sunrise services can somehow be "traced" to it (remember, unless the pagans were doing it concurrently with the addition of this tradition to Christianity, any connection is highly implausible).
Your interpretation of Ezekiel 8:15-18 is a bit odd. You say that "worship of the sun god at sunrise is the religious ritual condemned" there. While it certainly does condemn worship of the Sun--which is not done at Easter sunrise services, meaning the whole thing being condemned doesn't happen there anyway--there is not any statement in Ezekiel this was happening at sunrise that I see. You just inserted that into it.
So Easter sunrise services are rather different than what is described in Ezekiel. Even if they were similar, you offer no evidence or explanation of how something that was being done in the 6th century BC (when Ezekiel was written) somehow affected a tradition that developed far, far later.
More claims you make without offering any evidence. Given your previous track record there isn't much reason to put stock into this. Especially when we see the inaccuracies that come next:
Once again: The only information we have about Eostre is from Bede's brief reference. Anything anyone says about Eostre outside of that is speculation. Or in this case,
completely made up. All this stuff about how an "ox was sacrificed" for Eostre, and that they were carved into the bread? Totally made up! You claim that "buns" is derived from a word for "sacred ox." Funny--every etymological dictionary I consult says nothing of this. This is another made-up claim. Oh, and hot cross buns are first attested to in the 18th century, or at least I've been unable to find anything beyond that. Care you explain how a tradition that started in the 18th century traces back to a (supposed) feast that no one had been celebrating for about one thousand years?
But what is most distressing about this post of yours is that you did this all before. Namely, the fact your entire post here is for the most part identical to a post you made almost exactly a year ago and
which I critiqued in detail back then (many of the things I responded with here are just what I said back then, so little did you change anything). Yet here you again make basically all the same claims with no new evidence. It cannot be said that you were unaware of my response,
for you replied to it... though in your reply, you responded to not a single point I made and essentially did nothing other than change the subject (
which I noted back then also).
You have had one year to come up with responses to my critiques or to find actual evidence of your claims, and apparently have not, and instead just make all the same inaccurate and unsupported claims.