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Maccabees no prophets

samaus123456789

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In 1/2 Maccabees in 100s BC they did not think there was any prophets among them

1 Maccabees 9:27​

Common English Bible​

27 So there was great distress in Israel, the worst since the time when prophets ceased to appear among them.​


1 Maccabees 4:46​

Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition​

46 And they laid up the stones in the mountain of the temple in a convenient place, till there should come a prophet, and give answer concerning them.​

2 Maccabees 2 quotes a prophecy from Jeremiah which is from 4 Baruch in the 500s BC but it is not an original prophecy in Maccabees just quoting something else that was written centuries before.

Psalms of Solomon Psalms of Solomon - Wikipedia This is not psalms in the normal bible.

Some of these are describing Pompey invading Jerusalem 63 BC then dying in Egypt 48 BC. One is describing the Babylon exile 587 BC or the Assyrian exile 722 BC. One claims to be a conversation Solomon had back in the 900s BC. It is possible that one goes back to Solomon. I do not know why a scribe titled this manuscript psalms of Solomon when none claim to have authorship by Solomon, and several are clearly recalling events after his time. Psalm 17 contains multiple prophecies about Jesus so at least this psalm is claiming be written before 1 AD, and claiming to be inspired scripture. The same psalm contains a part about either Pompey or Antiochus 4 in Maccabees also. Assuming it is about the same person in the other psalms that besieged Jerusalem it was Pompey. The internal date of authorship is between 48 BC, and 1 AD. I believe it is inspired scripture.

So although most prophecy seemed to stop after Malachi was written around 400 BC there is some prophecy 48 BC-1 AD. I believe 1/2/3 Maccabees are inspired like Esther, and those books are history with no prophecies where as most other OT books have both.

Ask chat GPT to show how Zechariah 13 happened in 1/2 Maccabees too. It gives some good verses. The latest that prophecy could of happened was 70 AD. Some parts are a double prophecy about Jesus also as the NT quotes it.

 

Paleouss

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1 Maccabees 9:27​

Common English Bible​

27 So there was great distress in Israel, the worst since the time when prophets ceased to appear among them.​

Greetings to you samaus, I hope your week is beginning well.

The title of your thread is Maccabees no prophets. You then quote 1 Maccabees which shows us that the Jews of that time believed that the prophets had ceased to be sent by God. This in turn supports our own reading of the Bible that God had put an end to all prophets, dreams and visions until the coming of Elijah. That time span would then be around 400 B.C. to the coming of John the Baptist and Jesus.

But you then turn to this (below)...

Some of these are describing Pompey invading Jerusalem 63 BC then dying in Egypt 48 BC. One is describing the Babylon exile 587 BC or the Assyrian exile 722 BC. One claims to be a conversation Solomon had back in the 900s BC. It is possible that one goes back to Solomon. I do not know why a scribe titled this manuscript psalms of Solomon when none claim to have authorship by Solomon, and several are clearly recalling events after his time. Psalm 17 contains multiple prophecies about Jesus so at least this psalm is claiming be written before 1 AD, and claiming to be inspired scripture. The same psalm contains a part about either Pompey or Antiochus 4 in Maccabees also. Assuming it is about the same person in the other psalms that besieged Jerusalem it was Pompey. The internal date of authorship is between 48 BC, and 1 AD. I believe it is inspired scripture.

So although most prophecy seemed to stop after Malachi was written around 400 BC there is some prophecy 48 BC-1 AD. I believe 1/2/3 Maccabees are inspired like Esther,


So let me ask this...
(1) If we read that God told us through the Scripture that there would be no more prophets or visions until the coming of Elijah...
(2) ...and in historical writings we see that the Jews of the time actually thought the same thing (so its not some modern day reading)...
(3) ... but then you say that there was in fact prophecies before the coming of Elijah...
(4) ... is God shown to be a liar?

Now I would presume that you would not in fact be calling God a lair. But it does seem that you have a problem with what appears to be a most reasonable reading of God's promise (one even the Jews of the times held) and what you say you believe.

Am I missing something?

Peace to you brother
 
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samaus123456789

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Greetings to you samaus, I hope your week is beginning well.

The title of your thread is Maccabees no prophets. You then quote 1 Maccabees which shows us that the Jews of that time believed that the prophets had ceased to be sent by God. This in turn supports our own reading of the Bible that God had put an end to all prophets, dreams and visions until the coming of Elijah. That time span would then be around 400 B.C. to the coming of John the Baptist and Jesus.

But you then turn to this (below)...


So let me ask this...
(1) If we read that God told us through the Scripture that there would be no more prophets or visions until the coming of Elijah...
(2) ...and in historical writings we see that the Jews of the time actually thought the same thing (so its not some modern day reading)...
(3) ... but then you say that there was in fact prophecies before the coming of Elijah...
(4) ... is God shown to be a liar?

Now I would presume that you would not in fact be calling God a lair. But it does seem that you have a problem with what appears to be a most reasonable reading of God's promise (one even the Jews of the times held) and what you say you believe.

Am I missing something?

Peace to you brother
when did God say number 1? The Judeans in Maccabees thought that but I know of no saying from God saying I will stop prophecy at Malachi. Jesus said the law, and prophets were until John the baptist (around 30 AD) so according to Jesus they could continue up until his time.

the people you call scholars actually believe the internal date of psalms of solomon 48bc- 1ad and date the original composition to that time period. i dont know why they dont reject the internal date and make up a fable as to how it was written much later aka pseudepigrapha like they do with the majority of other biblical texts
 
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Paleouss

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Greetings again Samaus, thank you for your time and patience with me. It is my hope that God is present in our conversations and His truth is forwarded.

when did God say number 1?
I know of no instance in which God said a number. But that is an irrelevant objection to our problem. God gave us events. The two points one needs is (1) The events that the prophets starting saying that God is now cutting you off...and... the event God says His prophets will return. We won't have exact day or minutes, but we don't need that detail to find the truth of this topic.

Within the biblical text, the ancient Hebrews had a problem with being susceptible to the surrounding people groups and their teachings about magic, gods, spirits and the teachings about demons. This is well documented in the Bible. As early as the book of Exodus, magic was prohibited among the Jewish people; evidenced by the Scripture, "You shall not permit a sorceress to live” (Exo 22:18). In Deuteronomy it says practicing in such empty beliefs is an “abomination” (Deu 18:12) and no one should make their children practice “witchcraft” or be “a soothsayer”, or one who “interprets omens”, or “a sorcerer”, or a conjurer of “spirits” (Deu 18:10-12).

The Jewish people, within their culture, had a BIG problem with bringing in the beliefs of outside concepts about spirits and demons and God punished them for it. Punished by having other nations conquer the Jewish people.

So it is written that the Jewish people “shall have night without vision” (Mic 3:6) and there will be “a famine on the land” (Amos 8:11) but this famine is not one of food but a famine of “hearing the words of the LORD” (Amos 8:11). According to Micah “The sun shall go down on the prophets, And the day shall be dark for them” (Mic 3:6) for there will be “no answer from God.” (Mic 3:7).

Above is only some verses where the decree by God cut off the Jewish people from prophets and visions.

I could go on endlessly on the biblical examples of the Jewish people being punished for their incorporating the false beliefs about spirits and demons, like the Holy Scripture telling us that the Jewish culture had “followed idols” like the nations who were all around them (2King 17:15). And during King Jeroboam’s reign in Judah, “he appointed for himself priests for the high places, for the demons, and the calf idols which he had made” (2Chr 11:15 NKJV).

Jesus said the law, and prophets were until John the baptist (around 30 AD) so according to Jesus they could continue up until his time.
Could you please give me your verse, source, or reasoning behind this claim?


So my question still remains from my post #2, is God made out to be a lier? If you have done half as much of the research you appear to have done...then you know perfectly well the verses that claim an end to prophets and visions until Elijah, and that the Jews of the day held the same belief.

Great conversation samaus. Peace to you brother.
 
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