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Does Regeneration Precede Faith?

BNR32FAN

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Yes, it's called burden of proof. It's your burden to substantiate the claims you make, not my burden to disprove mere assertions. Once you've offered some form of argument for them, then I'll have something to respond to. That's how a debate works.

Let's make it simple. On John 6:44. Which of the following statements (if any) would you object to, and why?
  1. No one (οὐδεὶς) is able (δύναται) to come to Christ apart from divine enablement.
  2. The divine enablement that removes that inability is expressed by the verb ἑλκύω ("to draw"), whose semantic core denotes an effectual movement from one position to another.
  3. Therefore, to draw (ἑλκύω) in John 6:44 signifies that the Father effectually moves a person from a state of moral inability (οὐδεὶς δύναται) to a state of genuine ability to come.
  4. The clause κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ("and I will raise him up on the last day") identifies the same individual as the direct object of the Father's drawing (i.e., the one drawn is the one raised).
  5. Every person who is raised up on the last day is necessarily saved (cf. vv. 39-40, 54).
  6. Therefore, all whom the Father draws will unfailingly come to Christ and will be raised up on the last day.
But those who had heard The Father and learned from Him will come to Him, verse 45. I explained all this in the post you ignored when you claimed that I never addressed John 6:44.

No my point is that if we take the information given in all of these passages and put it all together we can make better deductions about how the verses were intended to be interpreted. The statement made in John 6:44 contradicts Jesus’ statement made in John 12:32. So the only way to determine what He actually meant is thru deductive reasoning. Ezekiel 33:11 gives us a very important piece of information about what God desires. Genesis 5:5-6 also affirms the same thing, that God does not want man to be disobedient and desires them to repent and believe which is precisely what 2 Peter 3:9 says. So interpreting 2 Peter 3:9 in isolation of the information given to us in Genesis 6:5-6 and Ezekiel 33:11 allows for an alternative interpretation, but when you incorporate the information given in all of these passages of scripture it rules out the possibility of God only being patient with those He intends to save. Even Romans 9:22 and Romans 2:4-5 rule out this interpretation.

“What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction?”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭9‬:‭22‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

“Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭2‬:‭4‬-‭5‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

These two passages prove that God is patient with those who are destined for destruction and the purpose of His patience is in hope that they would repent which follows along with 2 Peter 3:9 perfectly. Ezekiel 33:11 echoes this exact same message.

“Say to them, ‘As I live!’ declares the Lord God, ‘I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then will you die, O house of Israel?’”
‭‭Ezekiel‬ ‭33‬:‭11‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

All of these passages together form a very strong, if not irrefutable concept, that God is in fact patient with ALL MEN not desiring for any to perish but that they would repent and be saved.

John 6:44 is completely different situation that took place during Christ’s ministry during the time when God had blinded those who didn’t believe the words of the prophets in order to bring about Christ’s crucifixion so that they would shout “crucify Him” in order to complete God’s plan of redemption. Calvinists often fail to notice this or refuse to accept it but it’s mentioned all throughout the New Testament and was prophesied in the Old Testament in Isaiah. In Mark 4:11-12 Jesus quotes from Isaiah when He said

“And He was saying to them, “To you has been given the mystery of the kingdom of God, but those who are outside get everything in parables, so that while seeing, they may see and not perceive, and while hearing, they may hear and not understand, otherwise they might return and be forgiven.””
‭‭Mark‬ ‭4‬:‭11‬-‭12‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

He’s quoting Isaiah 6

“He said, “Go, and tell this people: ‘Keep on listening, but do not perceive; Keep on looking, but do not understand.’ Render the hearts of this people insensitive, Their ears dull, And their eyes dim, Otherwise they might see with their eyes, Hear with their ears, Understand with their hearts, And return and be healed.” Then I said, “Lord, how long?” And He answered, “Until cities are devastated and without inhabitant, Houses are without people And the land is utterly desolate, The Lord has removed men far away, And the forsaken places are many in the midst of the land. Yet there will be a tenth portion in it, And it will again be subject to burning, Like a terebinth or an oak Whose stump remains when it is felled. The holy seed is its stump.””
‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭6‬:‭9‬-‭13‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

He quotes Isaiah again in John 12

“This was to fulfill the word of Isaiah the prophet which he spoke: “Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” For this reason they could not believe, for Isaiah said again, “He has blinded their eyes and He hardened their heart, so that they would not see with their eyes and perceive with their heart, and be converted and I heal them.” These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. Nevertheless many even of the rulers believed in Him, but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing Him, for fear that they would be put out of the synagogue; for they loved the approval of men rather than the approval of God. And Jesus cried out and said, “He who believes in Me, does not believe in Me but in Him who sent Me. He who sees Me sees the One who sent Me. I have come as Light into the world, so that everyone who believes in Me will not remain in darkness. If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one who judges him; the word I spoke is what will judge him at the last day.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭38‬-‭48‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

In John 5

“And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His form. You do not have His word abiding in you, for you do not believe Him whom He sent. You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me; and you are unwilling to come to Me so that you may have life. I do not receive glory from men; but I know you, that you do not have the love of God in yourselves. I have come in My Father’s name, and you do not receive Me; if another comes in his own name, you will receive him. How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and you do not seek the glory that is from the one and only God? Do not think that I will accuse you before the Father; the one who accuses you is Moses, in whom you have set your hope. For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?””
‭‭John‬ ‭5‬:‭37‬-‭47‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Then in John 6:44-45

“No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day. It is written in the prophets, ‘And they shall all be taught of God.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.”
‭‭John‬ ‭6‬:‭44‬-‭45‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Jesus didn’t just say that no one could come to Him unless The Father draws them, He included the prophecy that those who believed the words of the prophets would come to Him. This is why some were not permitted to come to Him during His ministry.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Not strictly on grammar alone. I focused on grammar because 1 John 5:1 is a straightforward example of how the perfect tense is typically used with present participles, especially in 1 John. The perfect passive ("has been born of God") describes a completed ontological event with ongoing effects. It's natural to use a present participle ("believes") to describe those present effects. That's the relationship of these verb forms in the vast majority of instances. That doesn't mean the verb forms themselves always indicate that relationship (they don't). But this is a pretty straightforward statement, so the grammar alone should suffice to make the point. If not, the broader context of 1 John reinforces it. This verse reflects a pattern with how John uses γεγέννηται in this letter (e.g., 1 John 2:29; 4:7). He intends the perfect γεγέννηται to be understood as an ontological grounds of whatever present participial action he pairs with it. Notice the pattern:

...πᾶς ὁ ποιῶν τὴν δικαιοσύνην ἐξ αὐτοῦ γεγέννηται (1 John 2:29, "everyone who practices righteousness has been born of him")
...πᾶς ὁ ἀγαπῶν ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται... (1 John 4:7, "everyone who loves has been born of God")
Πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ Χριστὸς ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται (1 John 5:1, "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God")

These are clear grammatical parallels; John is making a point here. So however we interpret one, we must be consistent with interpreting the others. Thus, if 1 John 5:1 is read as faith preceding (or having no logical relationship to) regeneration, consistency demands the same understanding with regards to practicing righteousness and godly love. What then is the purpose of regeneration at all, if the sinner is capable of engaging in these activities prior to regeneration?

So it's not enough to point to "present participle + a perfect" and claim parity between 1 John 5:1 and another verse. That was not my intended argument, and I realize in hindsight it was a mistake not to be clearer on that in the OP. 1 John 5:1 and 5:10 perform different rhetorical functions, so the same forms function differently.

Briefly:
  • 1 John 5:1 uses a perfect passive to name a completed, ontological event, and a substantival present participle to describe the ongoing condition that issues from that event. That's the standard use of the perfect + present participle in the vast majority of cases, and clearly seems to be John's intended use of γεγέννηται throughout the letter.
  • 1 John 5:10 contrasts two present states (ὁ πιστεύων and ὁ μὴ πιστεύων, "believing" and "not believing") and then treats a cluster of perfects as completed acts or testimonies whose consequences follow. Critically, the ὅτι clause ("because he has not believed...") explains why the unbeliever is said to have "made God a liar" (πεποίηκεν). The perfects describe completed acts with present consequence (God's testimony given; the person's rejection).
Put another way: in 5:10 the participles set up the contrast (current believer vs. current non-believer); the perfects then state the results or evidences that attend those states. In 5:1 the perfect states the prior ontological reality that makes the present participial state intelligible. In 5:10, the ὅτι clause is the interpretive key. It exposes the perfects as explanatory/consequential, not as the kind of ontological ground that γεγέννηται functions as in 5:1.

(My emphasis added.) I'm not convinced you understand the difference between the terms logical and temporal, as I've made this distinction in no fewer than four of my replies to you (not to mention the OP itself), and you're still conflating the two. A temporal order concerns when events occur in time; a logical order concerns what necessarily gives rise to what. You can have two events occur simultaneously in time, and there still be logical order between them. For instance, the sun doesn't shine first and then later produce light (temporal sequence); light proceeds from it by necessity. The sun shining, and the ground being illuminated, are simultaneous actions, but that doesn't mean the logical order can be reversed from "the ground is illuminated because the sun shines," to "the sun shines because the ground is illuminated."

So I have no issue with saying regeneration can occur simultaneously with another action. The issue I am concerned with is the logical relationship between regeneration and faith. Is my room illuminated because the light switch was flipped (do I believe because God has regenerated me), or was the light switch flipped because my room is illuminated (did God regenerate me because I believe)? The actions of flipping the switch and the room being illuminated can be instantaneous as I experience them, but that doesn't speak to the nature of the logical relationship between them.
I had hoped that you would see that your OP (copied below for ease of reference) mis-stated the gramatical implications of 1 John 5:1a. And I am glad to see that you have done so.
1 John 5:1a reads:

πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστὶν ὁ Χριστός, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται
("Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God")

A few grammatical observations:

First, ὁ πιστεύων is a present active participle functioning substantively: "the one who is believing." The participle presents the subject, and describes a present, ongoing activity rather than a completed act of faith.

Second, γεγέννηται, the main verb of the clause, is a perfect passive indicative: "has been begotten" or "has been born [of God]." The perfect tense is more than just a "past" tense. Its aspectual function specifically points to a completed action in the past whose effects continue into the present.

When the two forms are set in relation to each other, especially with the present participle functioning substantively -- that is, as the subject of the main verb -- the natural sense is that the person who now believes does so as one who has already been born of God. The grammar, therefore, suggests a logical ordering in which the new birth precedes the act of believing.

This does not, of course, deny the simultaneous experience of these realities in human perception, but grammatically the text places regeneration as the root (the logical grounds) and believing as its fruit.
The natural sense of the grammar is not that one who believes has already been born of God, the grammar does not suggest a logical ordering in which the new birth preceeds the act of believing, and the grammar does not place regeneration as the root and believing as the fruit. So, your OP was wrong on all three points. And now you have rightly asserted that it takes more than grammar to make these points.

I can see that faith logically preceeds receiving Him, that receiving Him logically preceeds Him giving us the right to become His children, and that the right to become His children logically preceeds God giving birth to us (John 1:12-13) even though it is impossible to observe any difference in time between these items. And I can see that all the things that pertain to life and godliness are ours now because Jesus lives in our hearts (2 Pet 1:1-4).
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Yeah that’s exactly the point I’m trying to make with John 3:18. Are the unbelievers judged already because of their unbelief or are they unbelievers because they’ve been judged already? The passage clearly states that they have been judged already because of their unbelief.

“He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3‬:‭18‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Obviously his claim about the Greek grammar is incorrect because this passage proves it. Not only that but in John 12:36 Jesus specifically said that we have to believe in order to become sons of Light which is synonymous with being born again.

“While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭36‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

And even after presenting this evidence he still says that being born again precedes belief.
This is an important tennet of reformed theology. It makes sense that they would defend it at all cost.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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But those who had heard The Father and learned from Him will come to Him, verse 45.
And this refutes which premise, exactly? I laid out a structured argument from John 6:44 with explicit premises and a necessary conclusion. If you believe the argument is unsound, you must identify the specific premise that is false or show how the conclusion does not follow. Simply citing verse 45 as though it overrides verse 44 is not a rebuttal. It's an assertion of contradiction without demonstration. Right now, the argument stands as presented, and your non-response is a concession that it is sound.
  1. No one (οὐδεὶς) is able (δύναται) to come to Christ apart from divine enablement.
  2. The divine enablement that removes that inability is expressed by the verb ἑλκύω ("to draw"), whose semantic core denotes an effectual movement from one position to another.
  3. Therefore, to draw (ἑλκύω) in John 6:44 signifies that the Father effectually moves a person from a state of moral inability (οὐδεὶς δύναται) to a state of genuine ability to come.
  4. The clause κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ("and I will raise him up on the last day") identifies the same individual as the direct object of the Father's drawing (i.e., the one drawn is the one raised).
  5. Every person who is raised up on the last day is necessarily saved (cf. vv. 39-40, 54).
  6. Therefore, all whom the Father draws will unfailingly come to Christ and will be raised up on the last day.

I explained all this in the post you ignored when you claimed that I never addressed John 6:44.
No, what you offered was not an "explanation"; it was an assertion. One that rests on a dispensational presupposition, not an exegetical demonstration of its truth. As I have said to you previously, it is not my burden to disprove your assertions. It is yours to substantiate them. An explanation accounts for the text; an assertion merely states an opinion.

And for the record, I did respond to your comment on verse 45 (see the end of that post). I cited your words directly and referenced where I had already engaged that verse in detail, asking for your interaction. You never replied. So you're simply being argumentative at this point. Merely repeating that you've "addressed" John 6:44 does not make it so. All you've done with John 6:44 is, again, state an opinion. To "address" an argument means to identify the premises and show where the reasoning fails. So far, you have not done that.

These were my comments on verse 45, which I already asked you to address:

Jesus is citing Isaiah 54:13, where "being taught by God" is a covenantal promise of divine renewal, parallel to Jeremiah 31:33-34, where God writes His law on their hearts so that "they shall all know Me." In context, it is not a general offer of instruction but a description of the effectual work of God upon His covenant people.​
Grammatically, διδακτοὶ θεοῦ contains a genitive of agency with a substantivized predicate adjective. This construction consistently denotes persons passively affected by the action of the genitive noun. Compare ἁγαπητοῖς θεοῦ in Romans 1:7 ("loved by God") and τοῖς ἁγαπητοῖς ἡμῶν in Acts 15:25 ("our beloved"), which describe an objective reality independent of response. The persons are loved; their reaction does not produce that love. Similarly, γεννητοῖς γυναικῶν in Matthew 11:11 ("those born of women") identifies those who have undergone birth, something wholly external to their will. The same pattern appears in θεόπνευστος ("God-breathed") in 2 Timothy 3:16, where the focus is on the divine origin of Scripture, not human participation.​
In other words, this grammatical logic essentially conveys the same thing as a compound word: God-breathed, woman-born, God-loved, and God-taught. It is descriptive of something that has happened; it characterizes. Thus, διδακτοὶ θεοῦ specifically conveys the idea that those in view have received the instructional benefits of the teaching. It does not convey the idea of a teaching simply offered. See also compounds σητόβρωτα ("moth-eaten," Jas. 5:2), πατροπαράδοτου ("inherited from forefathers," 1 Pet. 1:18), and ποταμοφόρητον ("swept away by a flood," Rev. 12:15). In fact, Paul actually uses a compound form of the "God-taught" phrase in 1 Thess. 4:9: θεοδίδακτοι.​
In every one of these cases, the modifying element marks the agent producing the effect.​
In other words, "taught by God" describes not a universal opportunity for instruction, but a divine action that creates the very capacity to come to Christ. It's a metaphor for regeneration, being born again, and directly parallel to "draws" in the prior verse. The subsequent clause, "everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me," simply articulates the necessary consequences of that effectual act. Being taught by God is what ensures coming to the Son.​

RE: John 3:18, still awaiting your interaction with my comments in post #91.

I'll refrain from further response unless you have a substantive engagement with the arguments above. Any additional assertion lacking demonstration will be regarded as a tacit concession.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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I had hoped that you would see that your OP (copied below for ease of reference) mis-stated the gramatical implications of 1 John 5:1a. And I am glad to see that you have done so.
No, that's a mischaracterization of my clarification. And I suspect you know that, given that you didn't respond to the parallels I provided. I didn't retract the grammatical argument; I refined it. You think you've "won" something by pointing out a lack of clarification, while ignoring the argument itself. The point still stands: the normal and natural force of the construction -- a present participle functioning substantively with a perfect indicative -- implies that the state expressed by the perfect grounds the action expressed by the present. That pattern is consistent across 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1. The fact that you chose to misrepresent the clarification rather than engage the refined argument is revealing.

My statement that "it takes more than grammar" simply acknowledges that syntax and context confirm the grammatical relationship laid out in the OP; they don't overturn it. By citing 1 John 5:10, you've only shown that a perfect indicative with a present participle can bear a different logical relationship in a distinct syntactical and contextual setting. Well of course it can. That was never in dispute. Treating a lack of clarification in the OP as if it were a claim to the contrary is an argument from silence and a misrepresentation.

Until you interact with the same grammatical relationship in those parallel texts, your objection is not a rebuttal. You're merely being argumentative rather than substantive. Clarification does not equal concession; it simply means you now bear the burden of engaging the clarified point rather than the caricature.

Since you haven't addressed those parallels, should I take it that your position is that one must first practice righteousness and exhibit divine love in order to be born of God?
 
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BNR32FAN

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And this refutes which premise, exactly? I laid out a structured argument from John 6:44 with explicit premises and a necessary conclusion. If you believe the argument is unsound, you must identify the specific premise that is false or show how the conclusion does not follow. Simply citing verse 45 as though it overrides verse 44 is not a rebuttal. It's an assertion of contradiction without demonstration. Right now, the argument stands as presented, and your non-response is a concession that it is sound.
  1. No one (οὐδεὶς) is able (δύναται) to come to Christ apart from divine enablement.
  2. The divine enablement that removes that inability is expressed by the verb ἑλκύω ("to draw"), whose semantic core denotes an effectual movement from one position to another.
  3. Therefore, to draw (ἑλκύω) in John 6:44 signifies that the Father effectually moves a person from a state of moral inability (οὐδεὶς δύναται) to a state of genuine ability to come.
  4. The clause κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ("and I will raise him up on the last day") identifies the same individual as the direct object of the Father's drawing (i.e., the one drawn is the one raised).
  5. Every person who is raised up on the last day is necessarily saved (cf. vv. 39-40, 54).
  6. Therefore, all whom the Father draws will unfailingly come to Christ and will be raised up on the last day.


No, what you offered was not an "explanation"; it was an assertion. One that rests on a dispensational presupposition, not an exegetical demonstration of its truth. As I have said to you previously, it is not my burden to disprove your assertions. It is yours to substantiate them. An explanation accounts for the text; an assertion merely states an opinion.

And for the record, I did respond to your comment on verse 45 (see the end of that post). I cited your words directly and referenced where I had already engaged that verse in detail, asking for your interaction. You never replied. So you're simply being argumentative at this point. Merely repeating that you've "addressed" John 6:44 does not make it so. All you've done with John 6:44 is, again, state an opinion. To "address" an argument means to identify the premises and show where the reasoning fails. So far, you have not done that.

These were my comments on verse 45, which I already asked you to address:

Jesus is citing Isaiah 54:13, where "being taught by God" is a covenantal promise of divine renewal, parallel to Jeremiah 31:33-34, where God writes His law on their hearts so that "they shall all know Me." In context, it is not a general offer of instruction but a description of the effectual work of God upon His covenant people.​
Grammatically, διδακτοὶ θεοῦ contains a genitive of agency with a substantivized predicate adjective. This construction consistently denotes persons passively affected by the action of the genitive noun. Compare ἁγαπητοῖς θεοῦ in Romans 1:7 ("loved by God") and τοῖς ἁγαπητοῖς ἡμῶν in Acts 15:25 ("our beloved"), which describe an objective reality independent of response. The persons are loved; their reaction does not produce that love. Similarly, γεννητοῖς γυναικῶν in Matthew 11:11 ("those born of women") identifies those who have undergone birth, something wholly external to their will. The same pattern appears in θεόπνευστος ("God-breathed") in 2 Timothy 3:16, where the focus is on the divine origin of Scripture, not human participation.​
In other words, this grammatical logic essentially conveys the same thing as a compound word: God-breathed, woman-born, God-loved, and God-taught. It is descriptive of something that has happened; it characterizes. Thus, διδακτοὶ θεοῦ specifically conveys the idea that those in view have received the instructional benefits of the teaching. It does not convey the idea of a teaching simply offered. See also compounds σητόβρωτα ("moth-eaten," Jas. 5:2), πατροπαράδοτου ("inherited from forefathers," 1 Pet. 1:18), and ποταμοφόρητον ("swept away by a flood," Rev. 12:15). In fact, Paul actually uses a compound form of the "God-taught" phrase in 1 Thess. 4:9: θεοδίδακτοι.​
In every one of these cases, the modifying element marks the agent producing the effect.​
In other words, "taught by God" describes not a universal opportunity for instruction, but a divine action that creates the very capacity to come to Christ. It's a metaphor for regeneration, being born again, and directly parallel to "draws" in the prior verse. The subsequent clause, "everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me," simply articulates the necessary consequences of that effectual act. Being taught by God is what ensures coming to the Son.​

RE: John 3:18, still awaiting your interaction with my comments in post #91.

I'll refrain from further response unless you have a substantive engagement with the arguments above. Any additional assertion lacking demonstration will be regarded as a tacit concession.
Like I said before, you can deny it all you want, I really don’t care. You asked for an explanation for John 6:44 and I gave you one. I provided passages of scripture as evidence to support my explanation. The reason you don’t want to answer my questions is because you don’t want to follow them along to their logical conclusion. So you just say you don’t have to answer them to avoid getting stuck in a theological problem with your theology and avoid them. Just because you refuse to accept my explanation doesn’t disqualify it as an explanation. Dr Leighton Flowers recognizes it as an explanation and he actually taught Calvinism for 10 years. So you can ignore my future posts if you want but I’ll just keep on pointing out the passages that your interpretation are contracting. I have no problem answering any questions you ask because I don’t need to try to avoid anything.
 
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BNR32FAN

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And for the record, I did respond to your comment on verse 45 (see the end of that post). I cited your words directly and referenced where I had already engaged that verse in detail, asking for your interaction. You never replied. So you're simply being argumentative at this point. Merely repeating that you've "addressed" John 6:44 does not make it so. All you've done with John 6:44 is, again, state an opinion. To "address" an argument means to identify the premises and show where the reasoning fails. So far, you have not done that.
No I stated an interpretation, not an opinion and I cited several passages of scripture to support that interpretation. And I’ve tried to demonstrate where your theology fails but you keep avoiding the questions saying that you don’t have to answer them. What are you hiding from if your theology is sound? You just don’t want to admit that according to your theology regeneration is not possible apart from salvation because that would mean that someone has to be saved in order to believe which directly contradicts several passages of scripture so you avoid answering the question in order to avoid having to address those contradictions, namely “what must I do to be saved”.
 
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BNR32FAN

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This is an important tennet of reformed theology. It makes sense that they would defend it at all cost.
Even at the cost of misrepresenting the word of God? I mean what’s more important here, teaching sound theology or defending a theology that contradicts scripture? I had to make that choice a long time ago and I ended up reevaluating my entire theology.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Even at the cost of misrepresenting the word of God? I mean what’s more important here, teaching sound theology or defending a theology that contradicts scripture?
Yes, you are right. They shouldn't but they do.
I had to make that choice a long time ago and I ended up reevaluating my entire theology.
I had a simmilar experience with legalism. It was a tough slog to overcome it, and the process shook me to the core, but God was faithful and led me through it. Looking back, I wouldn't trade it for anything.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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It's difficult not to note the irony of accusing me of misrepresenting Scripture while refusing to engage the exegetical argument drawn from Scripture. The grammatical and thematic parallels in 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1 clearly indicate a logical ordering of cause and effect. I've repeatedly posed this challenge, and you have both refused to touch it. Deflection and rhetoric do not constitute rebuttal. I appreciate your interactions, but your continued avoidance functions as a tacit concession of the argument.
 
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zoidar

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It's difficult not to note the irony of accusing me of misrepresenting Scripture while refusing to engage the exegetical argument drawn from Scripture. The grammatical and thematic parallels in 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1 clearly indicate a logical ordering of cause and effect. I've repeatedly posed this challenge, and you have both refused to touch it. Deflection and rhetoric do not constitute rebuttal. I appreciate your interactions, but your continued avoidance functions as a tacit concession of the argument.
One reason they aren't responding to your arguments might be because your understanding of the Greek language appears to have some issues.

Where have you learned Greek? To try to use grammer to prove your points, you really need a good understanding of the Greek language as a whole.
 
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BNR32FAN

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It's difficult not to note the irony of accusing me of misrepresenting Scripture while refusing to engage the exegetical argument drawn from Scripture. The grammatical and thematic parallels in 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1 clearly indicate a logical ordering of cause and effect. I've repeatedly posed this challenge, and you have both refused to touch it. Deflection and rhetoric do not constitute rebuttal. I appreciate your interactions, but your continued avoidance functions as a tacit concession of the argument.
“If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone also who practices righteousness is born of Him.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭2‬:‭29‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

There’s no indication of cause or sequence in this statement.

“Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God; and everyone who loves is born of God and knows God.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭4‬:‭7‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

This verse doesn’t say anything about cause or sequence either.

Neither of these passages say that the person practices righteousness because they are born again or that they love one another because they are born again. There’s no indication of cause or sequence.

But John 12:36 certainly indicates both cause and sequence.

“While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭36‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬
 
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zoidar

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“If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone also who practices righteousness is born of Him.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭2‬:‭29‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

There’s no indication of cause or sequence in this statement.

“Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God; and everyone who loves is born of God and knows God.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭4‬:‭7‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

This verse doesn’t say anything about cause or sequence either.

Neither of these passages say that the person practices righteousness because they are born again or that they love one another because they are born again. There’s no indication of cause or sequence.

But John 12:36 certainly indicates both cause and sequence.

“While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭36‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬
While you are at it, what about 1 John 5:1?
 
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BNR32FAN

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While you are at it, what about 1 John 5:1?
No causality or sequence in the statement.

“Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and whoever loves the Father loves the child born of Him.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭5‬:‭1‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

There’s nothing in the statement that implies that being born again is the cause of belief nor is there anything that implies that being born again happens before belief.

But if we look at John 12:36 we see belief being both the cause and taking place before becoming a son of Light.

“While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭36‬ NASB1995

It doesn’t take a rocket scientist to understand the term “so that you may become”.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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One reason they aren't responding to your arguments might be because your understanding of the Greek language appears to have some issues.

Where have you learned Greek? To try to use grammer to prove your points, you really need a good understanding of the Greek language as a whole.
You've said elsewhere, "I'm not very knowledgeable in Greek grammer (sic)." Yet you're comfortable asserting that I misunderstand the language, without offering a single example or counter-argument?

The problem isn't my Greek; it's that those making this claim have demonstrated elementary misunderstandings of it themselves. I've pointed this out. NewLifeInChristJesus confused participial aspect between narrative and gnomic contexts (post #10), treating temporal reference as if it were inherent to the participle rather than context-determined. BNR32FAN has likewise apparently denied the inherent logic of the perfect tense (a completed act with continuing results) and seems unaware of the difference between assertion and argument. These are basic errors.

Let the record of our discussion stand: no one has yet engaged the actual argument of 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1. The argument rests on the repeated syntactic pattern: a present substantival participle functioning as subject of a perfect indicative in gnomic statements. The ordinary sense of that construction is that the state expressed by the perfect grounds the action denoted by the present. The perfect highlights a completed act whose results persist; the present participle expresses the ongoing manifestation of that result. Hence, "the one who believes" is so characterized because he "has been born of God."

This is the normal and natural sense of this construction in most contexts. Does that mean the relationship is always causal? No, and I have never said otherwise. But exceptional cases, where context alters the logical force, do not overturn the ordinary usage.

My critics pretend that because I didn't explicitly mention exceptions, I therefore denied their existence. That is both an argument from silence and a misrepresentation. The argument does not claim that grammar requires one fixed meaning. It rests on the fact that the ordinary usage of the perfect + present participle, especially in gnomic or didactic statements, is that the perfect grounds the action or quality expressed by the present.

The syntax of 1 John 5:1 is straightforward. There should be no need for further argument to see that it fits this ordinary usage. But for those who wish to contest it, John himself confirms the same pattern in 1 John 2:29 and 4:7, where the identical construction clearly conveys logical order: the state described by the perfect (being born of God) grounds the activity described by the participle (doing righteousness, loving). It's telling that the argument is being dismissed rather than addressed. It would appear that BNR32FAN in particular believes that regeneration is not necessary for the sinner to practice righteousness or engage in godly love, since he/she has denied logical sequence in those verses. What, then, is the purpose of regeneration?

NewLifeInChristJesus and BNR32FAN's reasoning depends on a twofold caricature:
  1. That the existence of exceptions erases any ordinary usage, and
  2. That my argument supposedly requires the grammar to entail a single, invariable meaning.
Neither is true.

John 3:18 and 1 John 5:10 do not reverse the grounding of the perfect. They simply shift the relationship according to what is being asserted. In 1 John 5:1, the perfect expresses the foundational act that gives rise to the ongoing activity; the logic moves from cause to effect.

By contrast, in John 3:18 and 1 John 5:10, the grammar expresses corresponding condition, not causal grounding (in either direction). The participle doesn't function as the basis for the finite verb (or vice versa); it characterizes the subject whose state the finite verb describes. The perfect or present indicative is not grounded in the participle; it corresponds to it.

This is why their objections miss the point. They treat my observation of a logical relationship between participle and finite verb as though I had claimed the two are always temporally or causally linked the same way. I made no such claim. The participle-finite verb pairing indicates a logical relationship, but the type -- causal, resultative, or corresponding -- is determined by further syntax and context.

In the vast majority of cases, especially in gnomic contexts, the relationship is causal or at least logically progressive, because that is natural to the perfect tense's encoding of a completed act with abiding results, and it is therefore most common for the participle to describe what those results look like. That doesn't exclude other nuances; it simply establishes the ordinary, expected usage.

The proof that my opponents are clinging to a technicality while ignoring the substance is simple: had I opened the OP with the very parallels John himself provides (1 John 2:29; 4:7; 5:1), their comments would not yet have contributed anything to our discussion. It's doubtful they would even be participating, given their inability thus far to engage that argument.

So I'll simply ask again:

Is regeneration necessary for one to practice righteousness (1 John 2:29) or to love in the manner John describes (1 John 4:7)?

If not, what is the purpose of regeneration at all?

But if so, how do you deal with the grammatical parallel in 5:1?

That's a simple challenge. The fact that no one will answer it is telling.
 
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BNR32FAN

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And the John 12:36 point. I've explained twice now why your use of it is irrelevant to the passage's flow of thought, yet you've offered no exegesis in return. You just keep reiterating a claim the exegesis itself already responds to.

At this stage, this isn't a dialogue; it's one-sided labor. So this is probably my last reply to you unless you can start directly interacting with my exegesis. You're repeating claims while ignoring the analysis that challenges them.
No you didn’t explain John 12:36. You explained John 12:32. You never explained how Jesus saying that they had to believe in order to become sons of Light doesn’t contradict your claim that we must be born again before we can believe. Being born again and being a child of God is synonymous.
 
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zoidar

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You've said elsewhere, "I'm not very knowledgeable in Greek grammer (sic)." Yet you're comfortable asserting that I misunderstand the language, without offering a single example or counter-argument?

The problem isn't my Greek; it's that those making this claim have demonstrated elementary misunderstandings of it themselves. I've pointed this out. NewLifeInChristJesus confused participial aspect between narrative and gnomic contexts (post #10), treating temporal reference as if it were inherent to the participle rather than context-determined. BNR32FAN has likewise apparently denied the inherent logic of the perfect tense (a completed act with continuing results) and seems unaware of the difference between assertion and argument. These are basic errors.

Let the record of our discussion stand: no one has yet engaged the actual argument of 1 John 2:29, 4:7, and 5:1. The argument rests on the repeated syntactic pattern: a present substantival participle functioning as subject of a perfect indicative in gnomic statements. The ordinary sense of that construction is that the state expressed by the perfect grounds the action denoted by the present. The perfect highlights a completed act whose results persist; the present participle expresses the ongoing manifestation of that result. Hence, "the one who believes" is so characterized because he "has been born of God."

This is the normal and natural sense of this construction in most contexts. Does that mean the relationship is always causal? No, and I have never said otherwise. But exceptional cases, where context alters the logical force, do not overturn the ordinary usage.

My critics pretend that because I didn't explicitly mention exceptions, I therefore denied their existence. That is both an argument from silence and a misrepresentation. The argument does not claim that grammar requires one fixed meaning. It rests on the fact that the ordinary usage of the perfect + present participle, especially in gnomic or didactic statements, is that the perfect grounds the action or quality expressed by the present.

The syntax of 1 John 5:1 is straightforward. There should be no need for further argument to see that it fits this ordinary usage. But for those who wish to contest it, John himself confirms the same pattern in 1 John 2:29 and 4:7, where the identical construction clearly conveys logical order: the state described by the perfect (being born of God) grounds the activity described by the participle (doing righteousness, loving). It's telling that the argument is being dismissed rather than addressed. It would appear that BNR32FAN in particular believes that regeneration is not necessary for the sinner to practice righteousness or engage in godly love, since he/she has denied logical sequence in those verses. What, then, is the purpose of regeneration?

NewLifeInChristJesus and BNR32FAN's reasoning depends on a twofold caricature:
  1. That the existence of exceptions erases any ordinary usage, and
  2. That my argument supposedly requires the grammar to entail a single, invariable meaning.
Neither is true.

John 3:18 and 1 John 5:10 do not reverse the grounding of the perfect. They simply shift the relationship according to what is being asserted. In 1 John 5:1, the perfect expresses the foundational act that gives rise to the ongoing activity; the logic moves from cause to effect.

By contrast, in John 3:18 and 1 John 5:10, the grammar expresses corresponding condition, not causal grounding (in either direction). The participle doesn't function as the basis for the finite verb (or vice versa); it characterizes the subject whose state the finite verb describes. The perfect or present indicative is not grounded in the participle; it corresponds to it.

This is why their objections miss the point. They treat my observation of a logical relationship between participle and finite verb as though I had claimed the two are always temporally or causally linked the same way. I made no such claim. The participle-finite verb pairing indicates a logical relationship, but the type -- causal, resultative, or corresponding -- is determined by further syntax and context.

In the vast majority of cases, especially in gnomic contexts, the relationship is causal or at least logically progressive, because that is natural to the perfect tense's encoding of a completed act with abiding results, and it is therefore most common for the participle to describe what those results look like. That doesn't exclude other nuances; it simply establishes the ordinary, expected usage.

The proof that my opponents are clinging to a technicality while ignoring the substance is simple: had I opened the OP with the very parallels John himself provides (1 John 2:29; 4:7; 5:1), their comments would not yet have contributed anything to our discussion. It's doubtful they would even be participating, given their inability thus far to engage that argument.

So I'll simply ask again:

Is regeneration necessary for one to practice righteousness (1 John 2:29) or to love in the manner John describes (1 John 4:7)?

If not, what is the purpose of regeneration at all?

But if so, how do you deal with the grammatical parallel in 5:1?

That's a simple challenge. The fact that no one will answer it is telling.
I noticed you didn’t answer my question about your background in Greek. Since your argument rests heavily on grammatical claims, it would help to know what level of training you’ve had in the language.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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I noticed you didn’t answer my question about your background in Greek. Since your argument rests heavily on grammatical claims, it would help to know what level of training you’ve had in the language.
I didn't answer because it's not relevant. My credentials neither validate nor invalidate the argument. You can verify or refute any grammatical claim I've made by consulting any Greek grammar. Or pick a claim you question and I'll substantiate with references.

Διαβάζω την Κοινή Ελληνική άπταιστα, και τα καταφέρνω αρκετά καλά και στα Νέα Ελληνικά. Διαβάζω την Κοινή εδώ και δεκαπέντε χρόνια. I studied Greek formally at university and seminary beginning 20 years ago, tutor students, and have translated and diagrammed most of the New Testament.

Now, if you have a substantive objection to something I actually argued, let's hear it.
 
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