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Easter Sunday vs Bible recorded Resurrection Day

Mockingbird0

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Still didn't come from Scripture.
Leviticus 23.11: "On the morrow after the Sabbath the priest shall wave it"
1 Corinthians 15.20: "Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who have fallen asleep."

The Sunday practice may be the oldest practice. Sunday was a Christian holiday from the beginning. Nothing prevented the first Jewish Christians from singling out the Sunday of Unleavened Bread for special esteem.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Leviticus 23.11: "On the morrow after the Sabbath the priest shall wave it"
1 Corinthians 15.20: "Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who have fallen asleep."

The Sunday practice may be the oldest practice. Sunday was a Christian holiday from the beginning. Nothing prevented the first Jewish Christians from singling out the Sunday of Unleavened Bread for special esteem.
You are reading a lot into those verses. They do not say anything about day 1 weekly worship. You would first have to contend with what God said in His own words, the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord thy God Exo 20:10, it is My holy day, the holy day of the Lord Isa 58:13 meaning there is no other and we can't serve two masters. The Sabbath is also a commandment along with working the 6 other days Exo 20:9, God placed it in the same category as not having other gods before Him and not murdering, it is His personal written and spoken Testimony Exo 31:18.

There is nothing about keeping day 1 as a weekly day of worship anywhere in the entire Scripture, it is a man-made holiday that sadly has led many people away from obeying God and His commandments.
 
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Radagast

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Celebrating Pascha on the weekdays (Friday, Saturday, Sunday) rather than the calendar days, was a decision of the 1st Ecumenical Council, with the method of determining which week was celebrated being left to the Patriarchate of Alexandria.
The 1st Ecumenical Council endorsed an existing practice. The main alternative was celebrating it on the Passover (14 Nisan).
 
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Radagast

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Unquestionably, Jesus Christ was Jewish and observed Passover. Jesus never kept an Easter in His life!
Jesus never celebrated His own death and resurrection? Why not, do you think?
 
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Radagast

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As Christians, we do not celebrate the Jewish Passover. We were never slaves in Egypt. Our ancestors never painted the blood of lambs on their door posts to prevent their firstborn being slain by an angel. The Jewish Passover was a shadow, pointing forward to the true Passover, Christ's death and resurrection that we as Christians now celebrate. We are not Jews, so why do you insist that we follow what God decreed for the Jews?
Indeed.

"... For Christ, our Passover lamb, has been sacrificed." (1 Corinthians 5:7)

That is what we celebrate.
 
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Radagast

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Your 'references' are merely the opinions of the "Church of God International".
The CGI is a non-Trinitarian group, and thus falls outside of Christianity as defined by our SoF.

I believe that the CGI is a splinter group of the Armstrongites.
 
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jamiec

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I have no problem apologizing if I did something wrong. I provided references to back up my statement.

As I stated the real apology and repentance and turning from should be to God, for changing God's holy Word, when we were told not to Pro 30:5-6
By that logic, the NT should never ever be used as Scripture, because:

1. The NT books post-date Proverbs 30.5-6 by a long way

2. Scripture never lists any 27 NT books as Scripture; and never hints at the existence of any Scriptures other than the Jewish ones, and possibly 1 Enoch.

And Jesus of Nazareth never said a word about them.

So by normal Fundamentalist logic, none of the NT books can be Scripture. They are too late, they are not recognised as Scripture by the Jews, & they contradict the Jewish Scriptures. Basically, they are Bible fan fics, like the Book of Mormon. By normal Fundamentalist logic, that is. By that logic, they are, at most, purely human productions, and are to be used as such.

Maybe Fundamentalists should repent of their unScriptural exaltation of those 27 books as Holy Scripture. If Jesus had no need of them - who are Fundamentalists, to call them Scripture, when He did not ? If Fundamentalists were consistent, they would realise that the Jewish Scriptures were all “done away in Christ”, and that True Christians™️ are led, not by dead and and carnal “Holy Scriptures”, but by the Spirit of God, because the Law of God is engraved upon their hearts.

For non-Protestants, these facts are not problems, because we do not attempt to construct Christianity out of the Bible. Nor do we divorce Sacred Tradition from Sacred Scripture.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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By that logic, the NT should never ever be used as Scripture, because:

1. The NT books post-date Proverbs 30.5-6 by a long way

2. Scripture never lists any 27 NT books as Scripture; and never hints at the existence of any Scriptures other than the Jewish ones, and possibly 1 Enoch.

And Jesus of Nazareth never said a word about them.

So by normal Fundamentalist logic, none of the NT books can be Scripture. They are too late, they are not recognised as Scripture by the Jews, & they contradict the Jewish Scriptures. Basically, they are Bible fan fics, like the Book of Mormon. By normal Fundamentalist logic, that is. By that logic, they are, at most, purely human productions, and are to be used as such.

Maybe Fundamentalists should repent of their unScriptural exaltation of those 27 books as Holy Scripture. If Jesus had no need of them - who are Fundamentalists, to call them Scripture, when He did not ? If Fundamentalists were consistent, they would realise that the Jewish Scriptures were all “done away in Christ”, and that True Christians™️ are led, not by dead and and carnal “Holy Scriptures”, but by the Spirit of God, because the Law of God is engraved upon their hearts.

For non-Protestants, these facts are not problems, because we do not attempt to construct Christianity out of the Bible. Nor do we divorce Sacred Tradition from Sacred Scripture.
That's a lot of conjecture.

To claim we can't use OT Scriptures in the NT 2 Tim 3:16 for All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, when Jesus/apostles all used OT Scripture in the NT and what they quoted from often and what Jesus told us to live by quoting OT Mat 4:4

Jesus said the same thing in the NT, not to edit the commandments, not a jot or tittle Mat 5:18 as if any man would know better as if God made a mistake in His own personal Testimony Exo 31:18 Deut 4:13
 
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rstrats

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Jesus died on Passover/Friday John 19:13-15, rested in His tomb on the seventh day Sabbath and rose on the first day, and went back to His Fathers work.
How do you account for the lack of a third night? And possibly a third daytime depending on what part of the calendar day the resurrection occurred.
 
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Mockingbird0

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How do you account for the lack of a third night? And possibly a third daytime depending on what part of the calendar day the resurrection occurred.
Jesus was exaggerating when he said "three days and three nights". If the contradiction did not bother Matthew, it doesn't bother me.
 
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David Lamb

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Jesus was exaggerating when he said "three days and three nights". If the contradiction did not bother Matthew, it doesn't bother me.
I don't believe it was exaggeration. He likened it to Jonah being three days and three nights inside the great fish. You would have to say that the account of Jonah was an exaggeration, too.
 
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rstrats

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I don't believe it was exaggeration. He likened it to Jonah being three days and three nights inside the great fish. You would have to say that the account of Jonah was an exaggeration, too.
On what day do you think the crucifixion took place?
 
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rstrats

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Jesus died on Passover/Friday John 19:13-15, rested in His tomb on the seventh day Sabbath and rose on the first day, and went back to His Fathers work.
You have a question directed to you in post #30.
 
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rstrats

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Figures of speech are common in every language.
Do you have any examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?
 
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The Liturgist

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Passover/Easter today has been changed by the Pope to be on a Sunday,

False.

The adoption of the Paschalion and the rejection of Quartodecimianism was implemented by the Council of Nicaea, where the Bishop of Rome was not present (indeed only two of the 318 Holy Fathers of Nicaea were legates of the Church in Rome). Most of the bishops present were Greek Orthodox with a small minority of Syriacs.

Also the Bishop of Rome was not even styled Pope at the time of Nicaea, so your argument is anachronistic as well as inaccurate.
 
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prodromos

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Do you have any examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?
Do you dispute that figures of speech are common in every language?
 
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prodromos

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Just because you say so is not convincing. Passover was never on every Sunday in the Bible, this is a man-made tradition, changing His times and laws, like many man has to others of God's times and laws as if they can speak over God.
You can easily confirm it yourself by reading actual history.
 
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