John 14:6 no man comes to the Father except through me(Jesus)

Jeff Saunders said:

Are you saying that bending the knee and confessing with our tongue that Jesus is Lord is not necessary to get to the Father? There are other ways?

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I'm saying that the Father taught the way to Him through His word and that Jesus embodied that way through his works by setting a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to it, so that is in accordance with God's word rather than in contrast with it. In Romans 10:5-10, Paul referred to Deuteronomy 30 as the word of faith that we proclaim in regard to proclaiming that God's law is not too difficult for us to obey, that obedience to it brings life and a blessing, in regard to what we are agreeing to obey by confessing that Jesus is Lord, and in regard to the way to believe that God raised him from the dead for salvation.

Jeff Saunders said:

If Gods law was the same before and after Jesus, why did Jesus say “ Moses said this… but I say this…” it seems like Jesus changed or fulfilled the law and now things are different.

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In Matthew 4, Jesus consistently preceded a quote from what is written by saying "it is written...", but in Matthew 5, he consistently preceded a quote from what the people had heard being said by saying "you have heard that it was said...", so his emphasis on the different from of communication is important. Jesus was not sinning in violation of Deuteronomy 4:2 by making changes to what was written, but rather he was fulfilling the law by correcting what the people had heard being said about it and by teaching how to correctly obey it as it was originally intended.

Jeff Saunders said:

Why does Paul say the law is dead? Now we live under grace not law.

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Paul spoke about multiple categories of law other than the Law of God, such as the law of sin and works of the law, so it is important to correctly identify which law he was saying that we aren’t under. For example, in Romans 7:25-8:2, Paul contrasted the Law of God with the law of sin and contrasted the Law of the Spirit with the law of sin and death. Paul said that the Law of God is good, that he wanted to do good, and the he delighted in obeying it, but contrasted it with the law of sin that was working within his members to cause him not to do the good that he wanted to do, so we need to be set free from the law of sin in order to be free to obey the Law of God, not the other way around.

In Romans 6:14, Paul described the law that we aren’t under as being a law where sin had dominion over us, which does not describe the Law of God, but rather that is the role of the law of sin. In Romans 6:15, being under grace does not mean that we are permitted to sin, and in 1 John 3:4, sin is the transgression of the Law of God, so we are still under it. Moreover, everything else in Romans 6 speaks in favor of obedience to the Law of God and against sin.

In Psalms 119:29-30, he wanted put false ways far from him, for God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, and he chose the way of faith by setting it before him, so this has always been the one and only way of salvation by grace through faith, and this is what it means to be under grace. Likewise, in Exodus 33:13, Moses wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to walk in His way that he and Israel might know Him, which is God’s gift of eternal life (John 17:3), so again that is what it means to be under grace.

Jeff Saunders said:

I would like to know why most people think this verse only includes those who die after Jesus went to the cross and why this is not a true statement for those who came before Jesus?

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Many Lose any discussion , WHY ?

# 1 There ARGUMENT has not merit

# 2 And do not have a good PREMISE

# 3 There CONCLUSION , does not matter

And I see one GLARING mistake , and the context is Israel !!

But with the Apostle Paul , I know who he is talking to , THE BODY of Christ !!

dan p