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You are my Son; TODAY I have become Your Father.

tonychanyt

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Ps 2:

7 I will tell of the decree: The Lord said to me, “You are my Son; today I have begotten you.
A literal reading of this suggests a temporal event. Was it indeed a temporal event? When exactly was this 'today'?

8 Ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession.
The psalmist recorded a prophetic utterance of God. What was the calendar date for the fulfillment?

I don't think there was a specific date. The target of the prophecy was not the psalmist but the future Messiah. When it comes to prophecies, the time dimension is often tricky. The word 'today' can be interpreted in a prophetic way.

Let's see how Paul interpreted it in his sermon at Antioch in Acts 13:

32 Now we proclaim to you the good news: What God promised our fathers 33 He has fulfilled for us, their children, by raising up Jesus. As it is written in the second Psalm:
‘You are My Son; today I have become Your Father.’
Paul connected "today" to Jesus' day of resurrection but Jesus was the Son of God even before that. He interpreted the psalm as referring to the day of Jesus' resurrection. He appeared to associate 'today' with the day of Jesus' resurrection, but I don't think so. He simply quoted Ps 2:7, assuming the prophetic and vertical nature of the prophecy in the psalm.

Similarly, in He 1:

1 Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. 3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power.
All this preamble asserted the preexistence of the Son.

After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4 having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.
5a For to which of the angels did God ever say,
“You are my Son, today I have become Your Father”?
Was there a temporal dimension to Jesus' divine sonship?

I don't think so.

8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever.”
He 1:3 connected "today" temporally with the cross and ascension. He 1:4 emphasized the superiority of Jesus Christ over the angels, affirming his eternal divine sonship and unique status as the Son of God. The term “today” in this context does not refer to a literal 24-hour day but rather signifies a decisive moment or event in salvation history. The word "today, " along with the future tenses, indicates prophetic certainty.

Four chapters later in Hebrews 5:

5 So also Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by him who said to him,
“You are my Son, today I have become Your Father”;
6 as he says also in another place,
“You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.”
Now, the author connected "today" with the day when the Son was appointed as the eternal high priest. The author pointed out Jesus' superiority as a high priest. Was it a space-time dimensional date?

No.

6 as he says also in another place, “You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.”
It was an eternal appointment.

Was the begetting a temporal event?

If you read it literally, it was. However, theologically, it was a prophetic and vertical fact. The Sonship itself was an eternal truth.

See also

  • TODAY you will be with me in paradise
 
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Reluctant Theologian

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Ps 2:


A literal reading of this would indicate a temporal event. Was it a temporal event?

I don't think so.


The psalmist recorded a prophetic utterance of God. What was the calendar date for the fulfillment?

I don't think there was a specific date. The target of the prophecy was not the psalmist but the future Messiah. When it comes to prophecies, the time dimension is often tricky. The word 'today' can be interpreted in a prophetic way.

Hebrews 1:


This verse highlights the superiority of Jesus Christ over the angels, affirming his divine sonship and unique status as the Son of God. The word “today” here does not refer to a literal 24-hour day but instead signifies a decisive moment or event in salvation history. Similarly, the future tenses indicate certainty.

Was there a temporal dimension to Jesus' divine sonship?

No.


He 5:


Here, the author pointed out Jesus' superiority as a high priest. Was it a space-time dimensional date?

No.


It was an eternal appointment.

On Pentecost, Peter spoke in Ac 13:


Peter seemed to associate 'today' with the day of Jesus' resurrection, but I don't think so. He simply quoted Ps 2:7. He assumed the prophetic and vertical nature of the prophecy.

Was the begetting a temporal event?

If you read it literally, it was. However, theologically, it was a prophetic and vertical fact. The Sonship itself was an eternal truth.
The whole 'begotten' issue is a fascinating one, and I'm not quite sure about some things.

Virtually all of the church at any stage has confessed that the Messiah/Yeshua was begotten by the Father; and the far majority of even the pre-Nicene Church fathers have stated that He was 'eternally begotten' - in the 3rd century CE Origin and later in the 4th century CE Athanasius developed arguments why 'there never was a time when He was not' - but if one studies the logic of those arguments one can see the reasoning is very, very thin.

The direct Biblical evidence for Yeshua being begotten yet that there was never a time that He was not is missing IMHO. We know Yeshua was with God before His birth, we know He created or was instrument in Creation (Colossians) .. but all statements about the Messiah normally project into the future, not necessarily into the past. ('Olam' / 'Ad' are future projetion, 'beginning' from John 1 refers to Genesis, not necessarily to all eternity before Creation).

The word 'begotten' (both in Hebrew and Greek) does settle the whole Arius debate - because anyone who is begotten by definition is not created. But 'begotten' in the Bible also without exception refers to a pro-creation/conception setting - literally 'bringing-forth'. And that would mean God the Father has brought-forth His Son at some point (so not created). It also explains why Yeshua is God .. because if God begets someone the offspring is by definition also God (the same principle holds for human beings).

To me it seems very illogical and contradictory to claim or believe Yeshua is begotten, but that there never was a point in time or situation that He was not. Because if Yeshua has existed always in the same eternity time-frame (or the lack therefore) as God the Father .. we cannot state He was begotten.

I'm just mentioning the logical problems and the lack of evidence here. Suggestions welcome :)
 
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tonychanyt

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