- Oct 2, 2011
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Why did God see women as unclean after birth or during menstruation?
u/havanafawn, u/Unworthy_Saint, u/Recent_Weather2228
If God is all-knowing, surely he should’ve known menstruation and birth aren’t inherently dirty?
Right. In fact, the OT concept of unclean did not imply being dirty. These were natural events. They were not morality plays. Another one in Leviticus 15:
The perception of women as "unclean" during menstruation or after childbirth in the Hebrew Bible stemmed from ancient cultural views on bodily fluids and ritual purity, which were framed within a religious system of maintaining holiness and order—not as a moral judgment against women.
The NT did away with this ancient religious category.
See also
u/havanafawn, u/Unworthy_Saint, u/Recent_Weather2228
If God is all-knowing, surely he should’ve known menstruation and birth aren’t inherently dirty?
Right. In fact, the OT concept of unclean did not imply being dirty. These were natural events. They were not morality plays. Another one in Leviticus 15:
To be more precise, this was ritually unclean, not dirty. It was an ancient Near East religious category. We need to see this in its historical, cultural, and religious context.16 If a man has an emission of sperm, he shall bathe his whole body in water and be unclean until the evening.
The perception of women as "unclean" during menstruation or after childbirth in the Hebrew Bible stemmed from ancient cultural views on bodily fluids and ritual purity, which were framed within a religious system of maintaining holiness and order—not as a moral judgment against women.
The NT did away with this ancient religious category.
See also
- What was the reason for a mother to be unclean for twice as long after giving birth to a girl than a boy?