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Eternal punishment vs eternal life

Jeff Saunders

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I think I see the fly in the ointment. As for the word exomologeo I did NOT give my opinion I quoted from one of, if not, the most highly accredited Greek lexicons Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gingrich, BDAG. Which represents approx 120-160 years of combined scholarship. Had one actually read the article one could see approx 40-50 ancient sources the authors consulted in determining, not guessing or opining, the definition of exomologeo. FYI that is how a credible lexicon comes about.
I have not seen any credible "references" similar to what I posted, only quotes from various "scholars" who say e.g. "aionioos never means eternal." A quote from a scholar might be more credible if the scholar includes his scholarship, similar to BDAG, which led him to that conclusion vs. an unsupported opinion.
While nothing in the BDAG definition of exomologeo posted says anything about a 'confession" being forced it most certainly does NOT say "gladly." I think I can safely say that a person facing punishment will say almost anything to avoid that punishment. A "confession" under such circumstances will not be sincere. See e.g. Matthew 7:21-23.
Ok so if I understand you , you think that the confession is forced and not sincere because of Matthew 7:21-23 . So even though the definition of the word, that you gave , doesn’t even hint of a forced non sincere confession that makes no difference because it doesn’t fit your tradition. Is this view correct?
 
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Der Alte

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I will be happy to do so brother. Just clarify for me if by “ALL the text” you mean in this chapter or other passages of Scripture?
This is where we have that give and receive exchange I believe is inherent in a fruitful discussion.
So. You next. Please explain what Paul is intended to mean when under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit says God will be ALL IN ALL?
Then, and only then will I comply with your request.

Blessings
While I work on that suppose you show me scripture which shows anyone in the lake of fire being pardoned and freed. You might want to read Luke 16:19-26.
 
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Ok so if I understand you , you think that the confession is forced and not sincere because of Matthew 7:21-23 . So even though the definition of the word, that you gave , doesn’t even hint of a forced non sincere confession that makes no difference because it doesn’t fit your tradition. Is this view correct?
Speaking of personal "tradition." Can you at least acknowledge that the word "gladly" does not occur in the definition of of exomologeo?
 
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Jeff Saunders

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Speaking of personal "tradition." Can you at least acknowledge that the word "gladly" does not occur in the definition of of exomologeo?
No I don’t acknowledge that, is it in the definition you give no, but there are others who disagree. Just because a group of people that have many years of history says so doesn’t make it true. Do you not think that the Pharisees of Jesus day didn’t have hundreds of years of what they thought were the correct way to view scripture, and were they correct? No they killed Jesus for going against their tradition. So just because of volume or longevity of a tradition doesn’t make it correct. But like I said even with the definition you gave of Exomologeo there is no hint of a false or forced confession, only what appears to be a sincere confession that Jesus is Lord, the very thing we all must do.
 
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hedrick

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Thanks for chiming in. I came out of that tradition myself. Very interesting thought underlined. Can you elaborate a bit.

Blessings
Yes. I think Paul sees Sin as an oppressive force. Being in Christ frees us from it. But not completely. While we're still alive we are a mixture of "flesh" and spirit. 1 Cor 15 describes a scenario in which the enemies, powers and authorities are defeated. With sin no longer oppressing us, we are freed from its effects. All end up in Christ. I think it's possible that this isn't quite universalism. While he doesn't say so, it's possible that there are some humans allied with the oppressive powers. But even if he doesn't mean absolutely all, the parallelism between the all who die because of Adam and the all who are saved by Christ is obvious.

1 Cor 6:9 and Gal 5:21 is interesting. One thing that should give us pause is that between them it's hard to believe that anyone isn't included. If this is a list of mortal sins, we're all in trouble. In fact he says that people who do these things can't inhereit the Kingdom. But 1 Cor 15:50 tells us that flesh and blood can't inherit the Kingdom anyway. The acts listed are those of "flesh" (in the sense Paul uses it). Flesh can't inherit the Kingdom. But in the end we will no longer be flesh. 1 Cor 3:12 talks about that process. (That passage is actually about Christian leaders, so it's an assumption that something similar happens to all of us.) Still, Paul thinks Christ has at least in principle defeated the flesh for us, so we shouldn't live that way.

While Paul sees Christ as the new Adam, reversing the Fall, Matthew sees him as what one commentary calls the World Judge. He has a lot more about judgement than any of the other Gospels (or Paul). Almost all references to Gehenna are in Matthew. Many passages, e.g. 25:46 seem obviously incompatible with universalism or (if my guess is right about Paul) almost universalism. The real question for Matthew is whether he believes in eternal torment or annihilation. While he has clear statements about judgement, he has no detailed description of it (unlike 1 Cor 15). What everyone quotes is "eternal punishment" but he also talks about destruction as well as being thrown into eternal fire. The latter is ambiguous, since fire destroys. I guess I think it's somewhat more likely that fire and punishment refer to destruction than to eternal torment, but eternal torment is possible. There are reasonable scholars taking both positions, even after all the OT and intertestamental background is considered. I think making him a universalist requires just as much weird interpretation as making Paul not a universalist (or at least almost-universalist).
 
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Der Alte

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Ok so if I understand you , you think that the confession is forced and not sincere because of Matthew 7:21-23 . So even though the definition of the word, that you gave , doesn’t even hint of a forced non sincere confession that makes no difference because it doesn’t fit your tradition. Is this view correct?
Oh, here is what I think is happening I'm not permitted to draw a logical conclusion based on the scripture I quoted while the UR group ignores or explains away vss. such as Jeremiah 13:11-14, Matthew 7:21-23, Romans 1:24, 26, 28. etc. as applying only to this age not the next age, although that is never stated in scripture.
I can't figure out when is that magical moment when after the enemies of Jesus, are made His footstool, are punished for some period of time and after all that somehow magically inexplicably become loyal followers pledging their loyalty to Jesus by willfully confessing He is lord.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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Oh, here is what I think is happening I'm not permitted to draw a logical conclusion based on the scripture I quoted while the UR group ignores or explains away vss. such as Jeremiah 13:11-14, Matthew 7:21-23, Romans 1:24, 26, 28. etc. as applying only to this age not the next age, although that is never stated in scripture.
I can't figure out when is that magical moment when after the enemies of Jesus, are made His footstool, are punished for some period of time and after all that somehow magically inexplicably become loyal followers pledging their loyalty to Jesus by willfully confessing He is lord.
Like I said before, it’s a teaching that you are not ready for . That’s ok you will learn it if not in this age the next.
 
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While I work on that suppose you show me scripture which shows anyone in the lake of fire being pardoned and freed. You might want to read Luke 16:19-26.
Look forward to reading your thoughts my friend. I am very familiar with the parable in Luke 16. I find it has no bearing on a discussion around the LOF, other than Hades along with death, are cast in to the LOF.

I have no concrete stance on the LOF at this time … but do lean towards the position our brother Jeff supports, rather than annihilation or ECP. But I still have some unanswered questions myself and a bit more study to work through.

Looking forward to your forth coming reply.

blessings
 
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Yes. I think Paul sees Sin as an oppressive force. Being in Christ frees us from it. But not completely. While we're still alive we are a mixture of "flesh" and spirit. 1 Cor 15 describes a scenario in which the enemies, powers and authorities are defeated. With sin no longer oppressing us, we are freed from its effects. All end up in Christ. I think it's possible that this isn't quite universalism. While he doesn't say so, it's possible that there are some humans allied with the oppressive powers. But even if he doesn't mean absolutely all, the parallelism between the all who die because of Adam and the all who are saved by Christ is obvious.

1 Cor 6:9 and Gal 5:21 is interesting. One thing that should give us pause is that between them it's hard to believe that anyone isn't included. If this is a list of mortal sins, we're all in trouble. In fact he says that people who do these things can't inhereit the Kingdom. But 1 Cor 15:50 tells us that flesh and blood can't inherit the Kingdom anyway. The acts listed are those of "flesh" (in the sense Paul uses it). Flesh can't inherit the Kingdom. But in the end we will no longer be flesh. 1 Cor 3:12 talks about that process. (That passage is actually about Christian leaders, so it's an assumption that something similar happens to all of us.) Still, Paul thinks Christ has at least in principle defeated the flesh for us, so we shouldn't live that way.

While Paul sees Christ as the new Adam, reversing the Fall, Matthew sees him as what one commentary calls the World Judge. He has a lot more about judgement than any of the other Gospels (or Paul). Almost all references to Gehenna are in Matthew. Many passages, e.g. 25:46 seem obviously incompatible with universalism or (if my guess is right about Paul) almost universalism. The real question for Matthew is whether he believes in eternal torment or annihilation. While he has clear statements about judgement, he has no detailed description of it (unlike 1 Cor 15). What everyone quotes is "eternal punishment" but he also talks about destruction as well as being thrown into eternal fire. The latter is ambiguous, since fire destroys. I guess I think it's somewhat more likely that fire and punishment refer to destruction than to eternal torment, but eternal torment is possible. There are reasonable scholars taking both positions, even after all the OT and intertestamental background is considered. I think making him a universalist requires just as much weird interpretation as making Paul not a universalist (or at least almost-universalist).
Thank you … there is much you have written above worthy of consideration. I will copy this and place in folder for reference at a later time.

PS Did you have any thoughts to share on the AP Adams excerpt I posted earlier, on his rendering of John 3:15-17? You had not replied, which of course is fine, but just thought I would ask in case you were still mulling it over.

blessings
 
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Either definitions of words mean things or they don’t. Are you trying to say that the definition that you gave is irrelevant because you post other scripture and refuse to say what part of the definition of the word Exomologeo that you believe show that the confusion is a forced one . It’s ok to admit that you don’t know or don’t care about anything that doesn’t fit your preconceived ideas. I don’t understand why you want everyone else to explain with references that you approve, but you are not willing to do the same. I see a double standard here. So again will you please explain what part of the definition of Exomologeo shows that it’s a forced confession.
The definition of exomologeo does not indicate if the confession is voluntary or forced. The context of the "confession" might indicate that. Let us look at Jeremiah 13:11-14.
Jeremiah 13:11-14​
(11) For as the girdle cleaveth to the loins of a man, so have I caused to cleave unto me the whole house of Israel and the whole house of Judah, saith the LORD; that they might be unto me for a people, and for a name, and for a praise, and for a glory: but they would not hear.​
(12) Therefore thou shalt speak unto them this word; Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, Every bottle shall be filled with wine: and they shall say unto thee, Do we not certainly know that every bottle shall be filled with wine?​
(13) Then shalt thou say unto them, Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will fill all the inhabitants of this land, even the kings that sit upon David's throne, and the priests, and the prophets, and all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, with drunkenness.​
(14) And I will dash them one against another, even the fathers and the sons together, saith the LORD: I will not pity, nor spare, nor have mercy, but destroy them.​
When God carries out vs. 14, and decides to not have pity, not spare, not have mercy but destroy the disobedient Israelites and Judeans would it be reasonable to conclude that there will be many "confessing" to God? See e.g. Matthew 7:21-23. In Matt 7:21-23 when many "confess" that Jesus is Lord. Does Jesus say, "Welcome you good and faithful servant?"
And before you touch one key the words "age","this age,""the next age" do not occur in Jeremiah 13 or Matthew 7.
 
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hedrick

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Thank you … there is much you have written above worthy of consideration. I will copy this and place in folder for reference at a later time.

PS Did you have any thoughts to share on the AP Adams excerpt I posted earlier, on his rendering of John 3:15-17? You had not replied, which of course is fine, but just thought I would ask in case you were still mulling it over.

blessings
I checked 4 critical commentaries on John. These are commentaries that regularly disagree with orthodox doctrine, and will happily list 20 different possible interpretations for a passage. None of them shows any question about John 3:16.
 
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I checked 4 critical commentaries on John. These are commentaries that regularly disagree with orthodox doctrine, and will happily list 20 different possible interpretations for a passage. None of them shows any question about John 3:16.
Very good brother. Thanks for having, as a good buddy would say, a look see …
 
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Jeff Saunders

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The definition of exomologeo does not indicate if the confession is voluntary or forced. The context of the "confession" might indicate that. Let us look at Jeremiah 13:11-14.
Jeremiah 13:11-14​
(11) For as the girdle cleaveth to the loins of a man, so have I caused to cleave unto me the whole house of Israel and the whole house of Judah, saith the LORD; that they might be unto me for a people, and for a name, and for a praise, and for a glory: but they would not hear.​
(12) Therefore thou shalt speak unto them this word; Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, Every bottle shall be filled with wine: and they shall say unto thee, Do we not certainly know that every bottle shall be filled with wine?​
(13) Then shalt thou say unto them, Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will fill all the inhabitants of this land, even the kings that sit upon David's throne, and the priests, and the prophets, and all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, with drunkenness.​
(14) And I will dash them one against another, even the fathers and the sons together, saith the LORD: I will not pity, nor spare, nor have mercy, but destroy them.​
When God carries out vs. 14, and decides to not have pity, not spare, not have mercy but destroy the disobedient Israelites and Judeans would it be reasonable to conclude that there will be many "confessing" to God? See e.g. Matthew 7:21-23. In Matt 7:21-23 when many "confess" that Jesus is Lord. Does Jesus say, "Welcome you good and faithful servant?"
And before you touch one key the words "age","this age,""the next age" do not occur in Jeremiah 13 or Matthew 7.
Unsupported presumption by you. The text doesn’t even hint at a false or forced confession, that’s your opinion not supported by anything other than your traditional thinking.
 
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Der Alte

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Unsupported presumption by you. The text doesn’t even hint at a false or forced confession, that’s your opinion not supported by anything other than your traditional thinking.
Right how uninformed of me. Someone facing immediate death will not beg and plead, do and say anything to try to prevent their death. That is so silly. Mea maxima culpa.
 
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I checked 4 critical commentaries on John. These are commentaries that regularly disagree with orthodox doctrine, and will happily list 20 different possible interpretations for a passage. None of them shows any question about John 3:16.
My brother, if you are so inclined, of which four critical commentaries are you referring?
 
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Der Alte

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Unsupported presumption by you. The text doesn’t even hint at a false or forced confession, that’s your opinion not supported by anything other than your traditional thinking.
Nonsense. Most people faced with death as a punishment will be begging and pleading saying anything trying to prevent the punishment. It has nothing to do with "traditional thinking."
 
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Nonsense. Most people faced with death as a punishment will be begging and pleading saying anything trying to prevent the punishment. It has nothing to do with "traditional thinking."
Dear brother … it is alarming to me that you are unable to process Scripture through anything other than the eyes of death with a view of punishment …

Edit added: Where, in this entire passage do you see anything that even remotely suggests this act of submission; bowing the knee and confessing Jesus is Lord, which no one can do unless by the Holy Spirit, is perpetrated by fear or threat of punishment?

The entire passage before you in Philippians 2 surrounds living one’s life with the same mindset of Jesus. Which is one of humility, selflessness and sacrificial action. This is the mindset of God revealed in Christ.

Can you not envision the entirety of God’s creation falling to a position of worship? Can you not hear the absolute awe in their voices spilling forth from their lips, in their own heavenly and earthly dialect, the willing declaration of their allegiance to our Creator? This all being birthed as a result of their hearts being smitten by the purist form of Love that can ever be experienced?

It must be an extremely heavy burden to carry such a weight of darkness on your shoulders every day. I hope you will find release from this affliction and allow the immeasurable, inexhaustible and pure love of our Creator to become the lens through which you view His Word.

Edit added: Even if you cannot see and agree with what I see. Do you, at the very least, DESIRE that all would bow and confess from a broken heart that is confronted with such pure love? The kind of love that would cry out: “Father, forgive them for they know not what they are doing?”

blessings
 
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Der Alte

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Dear brother … it is alarming to me that you are unable to process Scripture through anything other than the eyes of death with a view of punishment …

Edit added: Where, in this entire passage do you see anything that even remotely suggests this act of submission; bowing the knee and confessing Jesus is Lord, which no one can do unless by the Holy Spirit, is perpetrated by fear or threat of punishment?

The entire passage before you in Philippians 2 surrounds living one’s life with the same mindset of Jesus. Which is one of humility, selflessness and sacrificial action. This is the mindset of God revealed in Christ.

Can you not envision the entirety of God’s creation falling to a position of worship? Can you not hear the absolute awe in their voices spilling forth from their lips, in their own heavenly and earthly dialect, the willing declaration of their allegiance to our Creator? This all being birthed as a result of their hearts being smitten by the purist form of Love that can ever be experienced?

It must be an extremely heavy burden to carry such a weight of darkness on your shoulders every day. I hope you will find release from this affliction and allow the immeasurable, inexhaustible and pure love of our Creator to become the lens through which you view His Word.

Edit added: Even if you cannot see and agree with what I see. Do you, at the very least, DESIRE that all would bow and confess from a broken heart that is confronted with such pure love? The kind of love that would cry out: “Father, forgive them for they know not what they are doing?”

blessings
Unlike some I read ALL the scriptures not just a few out-of-context vss. which seem to support a specific POV. See e.g.
1 Corinthians 15:22-23​
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
It does NOT say as some try to make it, "all will made alive in Christ." All mankind is "in Adam" since Adam is the progenitor of all mankind. But all are not "in Christ" unless each individual makes an informed conscious decision in this life. Death bed, post death conversion is never mentioned in the entire Bible.
Romans 8:1​
(1) There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​
Paul the same writer said, "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus." The converse of that is "There is therefore now condemnation to them which are not in Christ Jesus." Not everyone will be saved no matter what.
2 Corinthians 5:17​
(17) Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.​
Again Paul, the same writer, the converse "if any man NOT be in Christ, he is NOT a new creature: old things are NOT passed away; behold, all things are NOT become new."
Ephesians 2:13​
(13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.​
Paul the same writer the converse is "now NOT in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes are far off are NOT made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Now back to 1 Corinthians 15:22-23.
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so [only those] in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
Christ the first fruits afterward only they that are Christ's at his coming. This vs. says nothing about all those who are not Christ's being made alive.
I am still waiting for someone to address Jeremiah 13:11-14 and Matthew 7:21-23. without interjecting the words "in the next age."
 
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Unlike some I read ALL the scriptures not just a few out-of-context vss. which seem to support a specific POV. See e.g.
1 Corinthians 15:22-23​
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
It does NOT say as some try to make it, "all will made alive in Christ." All mankind is "in Adam" since Adam is the progenitor of all mankind. But all are not "in Christ" unless each individual makes an informed conscious decision in this life. Death bed, post death conversion is never mentioned in the entire Bible.
Romans 8:1​
(1) There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​
Paul the same writer said, "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus." The converse of that is "There is therefore now condemnation to them which are not in Christ Jesus." Not everyone will be saved no matter what.
2 Corinthians 5:17​
(17) Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.​
Again Paul, the same writer, the converse "if any man NOT be in Christ, he is NOT a new creature: old things are NOT passed away; behold, all things are NOT become new."
Ephesians 2:13​
(13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.​
Paul the same writer the converse is "now NOT in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes are far off are NOT made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Now back to 1 Corinthians 15:22-23.
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so [only those] in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
Christ the first fruits afterward only they that are Christ's at his coming. This vs. says nothing about all those who are not Christ's being made alive.
I am still waiting for someone to address Jeremiah 13:11-14 and Matthew 7:21-23. without interjecting the words "in the next age."
My friend, your first responsibility to the Scripture is always to honor the plain teaching of the text, within the context provided by the author. If you cannot agree with me on this point our discussions will always be simply another exercise in futility. I provided you with just that very thing. You cannot bring a single objection against the specific grammatical structure I provided, which is how I interpret the text.

I am in absolute agreement with every passage of Scripture you provided. There is no conflict between what I presented with the passages you shared. I know what you “think” I am saying with verse 22 but it is only because you are imposing upon the text something that it does not say either. I leave that for you to discern.

Now, because the foundation of your theological paradigm is shaken by the plain meaning of the text, you must insert something that is simply not there [only those]. That my brother is the quintessential example of eisegesis.

I am still looking forward to your reply of my question posed to you? Remember? Respectful discussions …

”When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all.“
‭‭1 Corinthians‬ ‭15‬:‭28‬ ‭ESV‬‬

blessings
 
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hedrick

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Unlike some I read ALL the scriptures not just a few out-of-context vss. which seem to support a specific POV. See e.g.
1 Corinthians 15:22-23​
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
It does NOT say as some try to make it, "all will made alive in Christ." All mankind is "in Adam" since Adam is the progenitor of all mankind. But all are not "in Christ" unless each individual makes an informed conscious decision in this life. Death bed, post death conversion is never mentioned in the entire Bible.
Romans 8:1​
(1) There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​
Paul the same writer said, "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus." The converse of that is "There is therefore now condemnation to them which are not in Christ Jesus." Not everyone will be saved no matter what.
2 Corinthians 5:17​
(17) Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.​
Again Paul, the same writer, the converse "if any man NOT be in Christ, he is NOT a new creature: old things are NOT passed away; behold, all things are NOT become new."
Ephesians 2:13​
(13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.​
Paul the same writer the converse is "now NOT in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes are far off are NOT made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Now back to 1 Corinthians 15:22-23.
(22) For as in Adam all die, even so [only those] in Christ shall all be made alive.​
(23) But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.​
Christ the first fruits afterward only they that are Christ's at his coming. This vs. says nothing about all those who are not Christ's being made alive.
I am still waiting for someone to address Jeremiah 13:11-14 and Matthew 7:21-23. without interjecting the words "in the next age."
The converse of a proposition is not necessarily true. What would be true is that anyone who is not a new creation is not in Christ. But as I keep pointing out, Paul is not writing propositions in symbolic logic. He is using rhetoric. Rhetoric can include things like hyperbole and other non literal expressions. The 2 Cor passage says nothing about non-Christians. Paul sees enemies, power and authorities as entrapping us in sin. It is certainly possible that he sees Christ freeing us now through faith, but that in the end Christ will finally defeat the enemies and free everyone.
 
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