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When Thomas said, "My Lord and my God", did he address both the Son and the Father?

tonychanyt

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J 20:

26 Eight days later, his disciples were inside again, and Thomas was with them. Although the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, “Peace be with you.”
Jesus appeared in their midst supernaturally.

27 Then he said to Thomas, “Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe.” 28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!”
Thomas reacted to Jesus' appearance with awe. Was he addressing two individuals?

No, he responded to Jesus singularly. He called Jesus his Lord and his God as a single person.

Was he addressing his God who was working inside his Lord Jesus?

I don't think so. Thomas's statement does not explicitly separate "Lord" and "God" as two distinct entities. Instead, he uses both titles together to address Jesus directly. Jesus is not merely a vessel through whom God works but is himself God in the flesh. Thomas had finally understood what Jesus said a while back in J 14:

9 "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father."
Thomas affirmed the unity of the Son and the Father.
 

Mark Quayle

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J 20:


Jesus appeared in their midst supernaturally.


Thomas reacted to Jesus' appearance with awe. Was he addressing two individuals?

No, he responded to Jesus singularly. He called Jesus his Lord and his God as a single person.

Was he addressing his God who was working inside his Lord Jesus?

I don't think so. Thomas's statement does not explicitly separate "Lord" and "God" as two distinct entities. Instead, he uses both titles together to address Jesus directly. Jesus is not merely a vessel through whom God works but is himself God in the flesh. Thomas had finally understood what Jesus said a while back in J 14:


Thomas affirmed the unity of the Son and the Father.
There is a common use of "and" in Greek, even in English, which could be understood to mean, "even".
 
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