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That Micah 4:3 occurs within the last days has to be taken into account. The issue is that you try to apply Micah 4:3 to a time period that doesn't fall within the last days. The last days refer to the time period between the first and second coming of Christ (Acts 2:16-21, 2 Peter 3:3-4), but you have Micah 4:3 occurring after the second coming of Christ.
So, you obviously interpret that to be talking about literally all nations on earth being at peace and there being no wars on earth anymore. Is that really what it's saying? Do you interpret the following to be saying that the Spirit of God would be poured out on literally all people?
Joel 2:28 And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:
We know, despite what it seems to say on the surface, that this is not saying that God would pour out His Spirit on literally all flesh (all people), right? It's talking about all believers in particular. Do you understand that just reading scripture in a wooden literal fashion the way you do is a bad approach to interpreting scripture? Similar to how Joel 2:28 is not saying that God would pour out His Spirit on literally all people, but rather all believers, Micah 4:3 is not talking about literally all people beating "their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks" with literally no war going on in the world. It's figuratively talking about how believers will be taught to love God and to love others as they love themselves and to be peaceful, just as Jesus taught His followers. Again, Micah 4:3 relates to the last days time period, which refers to the time between the first and second coming of Christ. So, trying to place its fulfillment after the time period that scripture itself describes as the last days is a case of making scripture say what you want it to say.
Joel 2:28 And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:
Do you also believe that there has to be a period when God pours out His Spirit on literally all people since that's what the text says? Or do you understand that, despite what one might conclude with a wooden literal interpretation of that text, what it's really talking about is God pouring out His Spirit on all believers and not all people? Should you think about the context of Micah 4:3 in order to determine what it's really saying or should you just interpret it in a wood literal fashion without taking other scripture into account and without considering the time period that scripture itself teaches regarding when the last days occur?
Micah 4:3 has nothing to do with Jesus ruling with a rod of iron. Jesus ruling with a rod of iron has nothing to do with Him ruling during a supposed future 1000 years. To rule over the nations (it should say heathen instead of nations - see Psalm 2:7-9) with a rod of iron is associated with destruction and not the kind of rule you're thinking about.
Revelation 19: And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. 8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession. 9 Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.
For Jesus to rule with a rod of iron is directly associated with Him smiting/destroying the heathen (Greek: ethnos) and treading them in "the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.". It is associated with Him breaking/destroying them with a rod of iron, not ruling over them for a thousand years in the way you imagine. Do you not take verses like the above into account when you think about what it means to rule iwth a rod of iron? Does context mean nothing to you? Ruling with a rod of iron clearly is associated with complete destruction, so why do you ignore that?
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