Daniel's 70th week

sovereigngrace said:

Where in Scripture does it say that "there was an end of the Jewish age"? Where does it even mention a "Jewish age"? It simply doesn't exist.

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What age is the author of Hebrews referring to then?

sovereigngrace said:

I think it is only fair to expect you to answer my questions when I am answering yours.

1. When was/is sin eliminated?
2. When was/is the sinner eliminated?
3. When was/is death eliminated?
4. When was/is corruption eliminated?
5. When was/is Satan eliminated?
6. When was/is marriage eliminated?
7. When was/is perfect righteousness introduced?
8. When was/is peace and perfection finally introduced?
9. When was/is incorruption introduced
10. Are we still living in an "evil age" or not?
11. When does crying stop?
12. When does pain stop?
13. When does sorrow stop?
14. When does curse finish?
15. When was/is all rule, authority and power finally put down?

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I get a bit overwhelmed at lists like that. Can you group them perhaps? #10 is the only one not starting with "when?" But just casting my eye over most of the 15 points, I would say - at the 2nd coming, yet to come. Unless some of the questions relate to Satan being cast out of heaven?

sovereigngrace said:

There was an end to the old covenant - namely the cross. Where in Scripture does it say that "there was an end of the Jewish age"? Where does it even mention a "Jewish age"? It simply doesn't exist.

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It mentions this when it says that in the "last days" the new age would be ushered in where Gentiles were reconciled and a new covenant would be established. So out with the old, in with the new.

The last days are never limited to the Jews or to a "Jewish age." Where do you get that? The sacred text teaches the opposite! It relates to the Gospel going out to the nations (Isa 2 and Micah 4).

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The last days were referred to as when the prophecies would take place. If we're in those last days now, then the prophecies are yet to be fulfilled.

As I have shown you, the change from old corrupt age to the new perfect age occurs at the second coming. You are yet to address all my biblical support demonstrating that.

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And I have shown you where Jesus defines eternal life and it isn't heaven he's talking about at all. He says it is knowledge of the father. John says knowledge of God is obeying his commandments. So eternal life isn't just heaven and Christ's second coming.

I refer you back to the sacred text that you have not exegeted.

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You've decided to believe something and won't accept any other explanation even from the text itself. Paul wrote there is more than one age to come 2000 years ago.

Al Touthentop said:

It mentions this when it says that in the "last days" the new age would be ushered in where Gentiles were reconciled and a new covenant would be established. So out with the old, in with the new.



The last days were referred to as when the prophecies would take place. If we're in those last days now, then the prophecies are yet to be fulfilled.



And I have shown you where Jesus defines eternal life and it isn't heaven he's talking about at all. He says it is knowledge of the father. John says knowledge of God is obeying his commandments. So eternal life isn't just heaven and Christ's second coming.



You've decided to believe something and won't accept any other explanation even from the text itself. Paul wrote there is more than one age to come 2000 years ago.

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All I am getting from you is personal opinion and inference. Can you give, and exegete, the inspired text?

Christian Gedge said:

I get a bit overwhelmed at lists like that. Can you group them perhaps? #10 is the only one not starting with "when?" But just casting my eye over most of the 15 points, I would say - at the 2nd coming, yet to come. Unless some of the questions relate to Satan being cast out of heaven?

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I agree re the second coming. I was not looking anyone to give an extended exegesis on each. I was just trying to establish where they are coming from. Most of these can be proven by a few clear and explicit texts.

sovereigngrace said:

All I am getting from you is personal opinion and inference. Can you give, and exegete, the inspired text?

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I am merely referring to scriptures already posted. That you won't consider them does not cause in me a requirement to repeat them again. You are trying to universalize the term age and apply it to heaven alone every time the term or word is written. This is improper exegeses. You also want the "last days" to have no finality even though I am sure you know that this term implies an end, and the old covenant finally passed away. So the last days in reference to that passing away has to have an end. And since the end occurred and the authors of the new testament indicated that they were in that time witnessing that end, we cannot still be in the same period of last days they were in.

Hebrews 1
God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;

That word 'worlds' there is the same word translated 'ages' in other places. It isn't a universal word that means the same thing every time it is encountered. Του αιωνον - the ages or, in this case, the worlds.

And Paul here is stating that they lived in a specific, distinct, "last days."

"These last days."

Here he indicates that the prophecies which spoke of last days were "these" in which Jesus spoke.

He's speaking to Jews who were going apostate and trying to return to the old law. So his opening statement is to remind them of the connection of prophecy to the current time and to let them know that this new covenant was the end of the last days spoken of in prophecy. He further drives home this point later.

13 In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.

So he says, using perfective participle, that the first covenant is obsolete (and continuing to be obsolete) and then references the future language of the prophecies - "is becoming."

This isn't indicating that there is a future passing away but that the prophecies which were written and pointing to the future "last days" - have been fulfilled.

Peter in his first sermon tells the crowd that what they were witnessing was prophecy which referenced the 'last days' and they were obviously then in those last days.

6 But this [the miraculous work you're seeing right now] is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:

17 ‘And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God,
That I will pour out of My Spirit on all flesh;
Your sons and your daughters shall prophesy,
Your young men shall see visions,
Your old men shall dream dreams.
18 And on My menservants and on My maidservants
I will pour out My Spirit in those days;
And they shall prophesy.
19 I will show wonders in heaven above
And signs in the earth beneath:
Blood and fire and vapor of smoke.
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness,
And the moon into blood,
Before the coming of the great and awesome day of the Lord.
21 And it shall come to pass
That whoever calls on the name of the Lord
Shall be saved.’

By definition, we cannot be in the same 'last days' that prophecy spoke about. We might be in the last days before Christ's second coming but since we know that the Last Day comes as a 'thief in the night' we have no way of knowing how near we really are to that event. It could be another 10,000 years or tomorrow. Only when that event happens will we know whether we're in the last days of the Last Day.

Clearly, we're in the in-between age of the 'last days' spoken of in prophecy and Christ's return. The age we live in now is not the eternal heavenly age which begins after the 'Last Day' though Christ did say that we would have eternal life before that Last Day occurred.

Al Touthentop said:

I am merely referring to scriptures already posted. That you won't consider them does not cause in me a requirement to repeat them again. You are trying to universalize the term age and apply it to heaven alone every time the term or word is written. This is improper exegeses. You also want the "last days" to have no finality even though I am sure you know that this term implies an end, and the old covenant finally passed away. So the last days in reference to that passing away has to have an end. And since the end occurred and the authors of the new testament indicated that they were in that time witnessing that end, we cannot still be in the same period of last days they were in.

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I am at a total loss how you came to that conclusion. If you have read any of my posts you will know that I believe that "the last day" of "the last days" is the climactic coming of the Lord Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 1
God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;

That word 'worlds' there is the same word translated 'ages' in other places. It isn't a universal word that means the same thing every time it is encountered. Του αιωνον - the ages or, in this case, the worlds.

And Paul here is stating that they lived in a specific, distinct, "last days."

"These last days."

Here he indicates that the prophecies which spoke of last days were "these" in which Jesus spoke.

He's speaking to Jews who were going apostate and trying to return to the old law. So his opening statement is to remind them of the connection of prophecy to the current time and to let them know that this new covenant was the end of the last days spoken of in prophecy. He further drives home this point later.

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Clearly, if you would actually read my posts you would realize that I have argued that "the last days" were inaugurated by Jesus Christ and will end at His climatic future coming. This does not disprove my position.

13 In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.

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So he says, using perfective participle, that the first covenant is obsolete (and continuing to be obsolete) and then references the future language of the prophecies - "is becoming."

This isn't indicating that there is a future passing away but that the prophecies which were written and pointing to the future "last days" - have been fulfilled.

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You are making the change from the old covenant to the new covenant the end of the last days. What is more, you are mistakenly applying that to the coming of Titus and AD70. The only problem is: the abolishment of the old covenant and the introduction of the new actually happened at the cross, not AD70. You are out by 40 years. You whole thesis does not add up. To you: the coming of Titus and the AD70, is somehow made "the last day" of "the last days." But Scripture teaches otherwise. It describes the future second coming. This is all wrong and you have not yet proved this. You are just assuming that it is right. You have to prove your case. You have to prove that they are synonymous and that they end with the coming of Titus in AD70. The reality is: Preterists are fixated with Titus and AD70. They speak more of that than of the coming of Christ and His glorious climactic return.

Peter in his first sermon tells the crowd that what they were witnessing was prophecy which referenced the 'last days' and they were obviously then in those last days.

6 But this [the miraculous work you're seeing right now] is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:

17 ‘And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God,
That I will pour out of My Spirit on all flesh;
Your sons and your daughters shall prophesy,
Your young men shall see visions,
Your old men shall dream dreams.
18 And on My menservants and on My maidservants
I will pour out My Spirit in those days;
And they shall prophesy.
19 I will show wonders in heaven above
And signs in the earth beneath:
Blood and fire and vapor of smoke.
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness,
And the moon into blood,
Before the coming of the great and awesome day of the Lord.
21 And it shall come to pass
That whoever calls on the name of the Lord
Shall be saved.’

By definition, we cannot be in the same 'last days' that prophecy spoke about.

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Please prove what you are alleging! You keep expressing your opinions. We are still in the last days!!! He is still pouring out His Spirit on all nations. Prophecy visions dreams continue until Jesus comes again.

1 Corinthians 13:8-13 parallels, “Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect (or teleios) is come, then that which is in part shall be done away … For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.”

The Greek word teleios (Strong’s 5046) which comes from the Greek word telos (Strong’s 5046), which we are very familiar with meaning ‘the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically, an impost or levy (as paid)’. It is speaking about the end – the consummation. In fact, the all-consummating Coming of Christ.

The limitations of this age are contrasted with the glory and the perfection of the age to come. After the Lord’s return, temporal gifts like prophecies, tongues and the gift of knowledge shall all vanish away. Why? We don’t need them anymore as we will have a full and perfect understanding of truth. However, “Charity never faileth.” A billion years into eternity we will still need love. We will love Christ throughout eternity. Love will never cease.

This age

(1) We know in part
(2) We see through a glass, darkly

The age to come

(1) “That which is in part shall be done away”
(2) “when that which is perfect is come … then shall I know even as also I am known.”

We might be in the last days before Christ's second coming but since we know that the Last Day comes as a 'thief in the night' we have no way of knowing how near we really are to that event. It could be another 10,000 years or tomorrow. Only when that event happens will we know whether we're in the last days of the Last Day.

Clearly, we're in the in-between age of the 'last days' spoken of in prophecy and Christ's return. The age we live in now is not the eternal heavenly age which begins after the 'Last Day' though Christ did say that we would have eternal life before that Last Day occurred.

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I do not know what you're trying to say here.

sovereigngrace said:

I am at a total loss how you came to that conclusion. If you have read any of my posts you will know that I believe that "the last day" of "the last days" is the climactic coming of the Lord Jesus Christ.



Clearly, if you would actually read my posts you would realize that I have argued that "the last days" were inaugurated by Jesus Christ and will end at His climatic future coming. This does not disprove my position.

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But since they were "the last days" they weren't the beginning days by definition. He brought about the end of the last days as Paul wrote.

You are confusing the change from the old covenant to the new covenant (which actually happened at the cross, not AD70), and wrongly equating that with the last days.

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The last days of prophecy were the last of days, not the beginning of days as Paul clearly states in Hebrews.

Prove it! You keep expressing your opinions. We are still there!!! He is still pouring out His Spirit on all nations. Prophecy visions dreams continue until Jesus comes again.

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What you are basically saying is that the last days never ended. You don't accept that they ended even though the prophecies were clearly talking about the end of the old covenant.

1 Corinthians 13:8-13 parallels, “Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect (or teleios) is come, then that which is in part shall be done away … For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.”

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Paul is talking about the end of spiritual gifts and the ushering in of scripture not the second coming of Christ. In fact, this should be obvious because he does not use a personal pronoun here but a reference to a thing.

The gifts were discontinued and replaced with perfect knowledge - the scriptures.

Al Touthentop said:

But since they were "the last days" they weren't the beginning days by definition. He brought about the end of the last days as Paul wrote.

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The Messianic period was viewed from the OT as "the last days." You seem to miss that. This is an ancient term that the enlightened identified with the arrival of their Messiah! It was the period where Christ would reign over His enemies and the Gospel would go out to the darkened Gentiles. That is where we are now. He is still reigning over His enemies and will do until He comes again to finally destroy all rebellion and introduce perfection.

1 Corinthians 15:22-27 “For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. THEN COMETH THE END, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.”

This passage confirms some significant truths. Firstly, it is at the second coming of the Lord that He finally puts “down all rule and all authority and power.” Also, we learn that, it is at the Second-Coming that the “last enemy” – death – is “destroyed.”

The last days of prophecy were the last of days, not the beginning of days as Paul clearly states in Hebrews.

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Again, the period we are currently in was named and predicted from the old covenant era. I answered this assertion above.

What you are basically saying is that the last days never ended. You don't accept that they ended even though the prophecies were clearly talking about the end of the old covenant.

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When is the "last day"? At the second coming of Christ. The "last day" of what? The "last day" of the "last days"!

Paul is talking about the end of spiritual gifts and the ushering in of scripture not the second coming of Christ. In fact, this should be obvious because he does not use a personal pronoun here but a reference to a thing.

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The gifts were discontinued and replaced with perfect knowledge - the scriptures.

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The gifts have not ended yet! Also: Paul warns in 1 Corinthians 14:39, “Wherefore, brethren, covet (zeeloute or be zealous) to prophesy and forbid not to speak with tongues.”

The Greek word here is propheteuo (Strong’s 4395) which means to foretell events through divine help, speak under inspiration, exercise the prophetic office.

1 Thessalonians 5:20, “Quench not the Spirit. Despise not prophesyings.”

One false doctrine leads to another false doctrine. The gifts are still alive and kicking until Jesus coming. Then we will not need them.

This is demonstrated in 1 Corinthians 13:9-12: “For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then (tote) that which is in part shall be done away … For now (arti) we see through a glass, darkly; but then (tote) face to face: now (arti) I know in part; but then (tote) shall I know even as also I am known.”

These words are employed in Scripture to divide between time and eternity, corruption and incorruption, this current heavens and earth and the new heavens and new earth. Please look around you: "that which is perfect" is not yet "come."

The Greek word teleios (Strong’s 5046) which comes from the Greek word telos (Strong’s 5046), which we are very familiar with meaning ‘the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically, an impost or levy (as paid)’. It is speaking about the end - the consummation. In fact, the all-consummating Coming of Christ.

At this final event prophecies, tongues and the gift of knowledge shall all vanish away. Why? We don’t need prophecies, tongues and supernatural knowledge anymore as we will have full understanding being perfect. However, “Charity never faileth.” A billion years into eternity we will still need love. We will love Christ throughout eternity. Love will never cease.

sovereigngrace said:

Clearly, if you would actually read my posts you would realize that I have argued that "the last days" were inaugurated by Jesus Christ and will end at His climatic future coming. This does not disprove my position.

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What were the last days prophecies about? The last days of what?

claninja said:

The 70 week clearly prophesies of and finds its fulfillment in the new covenant and gospel
Daniel 9:24 “Seventy sevens are decreed about your people and your holy city, 1.) to finish the transgression, 2.) to put an end to sin, 3.) and to atone for iniquity, 4.) to bring in everlasting righteousness, 5.) to seal both vision and prophet, 6.) and to anoint a most holy.

All 6 items find their fulfillment in the 70th week, with the death of Christ. For it is Christ who was cut off in the midst of the week in order that the sacrifice and offering would be ended.

Hebrews 10:8-9 In the passage above He says, “Sacrifices and offerings, burnt offerings and sin offerings You did not desire, nor did You delight in them” (although they are offered according to the law). Then He adds, “Here I am, I have come to do Your will.” He takes away the first to establish the second.

1.) finish transgression. God redeemed his people from the transgressions committed under the old covenant
Hebrews 9:15 Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that redeems them from the transgressions committed under the first covenant.

2.) put an end to sin. Christ put away sin by his sacrifice
Hebrews 9:26 But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

3.) atone for iniquity. Christ is our high priest and atones for our sins.
Hebrews 2:17 or this reason He had to be made like His brothers in every way, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, in order to make atonement for the sins of the people.

4.) Bring in everlasting righteous. The righteous standards of God have forever been fulfilled in those who are in Christ.
Romans 8:3-4 For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.c He thus condemned sin in the flesh, so that the righteous standard of the law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.

5.) Sealing vision and prophet. Christ fulfilled everything written about him in the Law, prophets, and psalms.
Luke 24:44 Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.”

6.) annoint the most Holy. Christ is the anointed most Holy.
Acts 10:38 how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how Jesus went around doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, because God was with Him.

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Hello claninja,
The 70 weeks prophecy is about People and their holy city...Daniel 9:24, and it is very clear

Jesus (Annointed One) enable the people fulfilled those things (6 items) God given to be accomplished within the 70 weeks..

I agree with you that Jesus fulfilled All the 6 items, but not for Himself.....it must be also fulfilled in the people and their holy city to be annointed at the end of 70 weeks. ...

So main focus of the 70 weeks prophecy is about people and their holy city

Al Touthentop said:

What were the last days prophecies about? The last days of what?

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The last days of time.

sovereigngrace said:

The last days of time.

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That's nonsense. The last days of the old covenant were what the prophecies were about and that's what the apostles said they were about. The last days were the days when the old covenant passed away and Jesus arrived to usher in the new covenant. They were an end to something and obviously it wasn't time.

Al Touthentop said:

They were an end to something and obviously it wasn't time.

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Exactly. To suggest that the Messianic period has an ending itself - and not that it brought an end to another period of time - changes the whole New Testament (IMO). That neglects to recognize the enormous impact Christ's incarnation had during His first Advent. His kingdom has no end. He is on the throne of David's now (in my belief):

mkgal1 said:

Exactly. To suggest that the Messianic period has an ending itself - and not that it ended another period of time - changes the whole New Testament (IMO). That neglects to recognize the enormous impact Christ's incarnation had during His first Advent.

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Agreed. There is an end. It's the 'Last Day'. But we can't know how close or far we are from that day. Could be tomorrow, could be 10k years from now. So to even suggest that we're in the 'last days' now implies knowledge of how close we are to that day. But as you say, it also distorts and minimizes the importance of the 'last days' spoken of by prophecy. If they didn't end, then how can we say that the prophecies were fulfilled at all? We're still waiting for the 'last days' to end!

Al Touthentop said:

That's nonsense. The last days of the old covenant were what the prophecies were about and that's what the apostles said they were about. The last days were the days when the old covenant passed away and Jesus arrived to usher in the new covenant. They were an end to something and obviously it wasn't time.

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Not so! Where does it mention the "last day" of your "last days"?

Joel 2:27-32 says, “And ye shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and that I am the LORD your God, and none else: and my people shall never be ashamed (speaking of the Lord’s first Advent). And it shall come to pass afterward (after Messiah’s appearing), that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit (speaking of the intra-Advent period). And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke. The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come (referring expressly to Him climactic Coming). And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call (This is speaking of the eternal rest that pertains to the elect in eternity).”

Please note, this passage relates to the last days period that commenced in scriptural times, includes us now, and will continue until the Second Advent.

sovereigngrace said:

Not so! Where does it mention the "last day" of your "last days"?

Joel 2:27-32 says, “And ye shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and that I am the LORD your God, and none else: and my people shall never be ashamed (speaking of the Lord’s first Advent). And it shall come to pass afterward (after Messiah’s appearing), that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit (speaking of the intra-Advent period). And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke. The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come (referring expressly to Him climactic Coming). And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call (This is speaking of the eternal rest that pertains to the elect in eternity).”

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The same prophecy that Peter said was fulfilled on the day of Pentecost.

Please note, this passage relates to the last days period that commenced in scriptural times, includes us now, and will continue until the Second Advent.

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The last days didn't commence, they ended. They were called 'last days' to reference the end of something. That end was the end of the old covenant. If they didn't end, then they weren't the 'last' of anything at all. You are rendering the term 'last days' meaningless by your faulty exegesis.

From Dr John Owen (1616-1683) Puritan theologian: Most expositors suppose that this expression [In Hebrews 1:2], “The last days,” is a periphrasis [euphemism] for the times of the gospel. But it doth not appear that they are anywhere so called; nor were they ever known by that name among the Jews, upon whose principles the apostle proceeds… It is the last days of the Judaical church and state, which were then drawing to their period and abolition, that are here and elsewhere called “The last days,” or “The latter days,” or “The last hour,” 2 Peter 3:3; 1 John 2:18; Jude 1:18… This phrase of speech is signally used in the Old Testament to denote the last days of the Judaical church (John Owen, The Works of John Owen, Volume 19, pp.12 – 13).

Al Touthentop said:

The same prophecy that Peter said was fulfilled on the day of Pentecost.



The last days didn't commence, they ended. They were called 'last days' to reference the end of something. That end was the end of the old covenant. If they didn't end, then they weren't the 'last' of anything at all. You are rendering the term 'last days' meaningless by your faulty exegesis.

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When did "the last days" commence? What era did they cover? When did they finish?

sovereigngrace said:

When did "the last days" commence? What era did they cover? When did they finish?

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The last days refers to the end of the law of Moses and their end was the beginning of the new covenant. The day Jesus was crucified. If they never ended, then the old covenant didn't either. The authors of the new testament were clear that they believed they lived in those last days and I believe the finality of those last days were consummated at the destruction of the temple. That's why John wrote in his first letter that they lived in the 'last hour.' His evidence for this? Those who were preaching against Christ.

The 'last days' of prophecy were specific to this end and to extend them out to the current time is to claim that they never came to an end