Christians and viewing "sex for enjoyment" as sinful

Apex

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While I do not think that inappropriate contentea covers all forms of non-marital sex, I do think it definately covers sleeping around and inappropriate contentography (watching/enjoying, and producing), as they are not loving acts.

I meant to talk about inappropriate contentea too.

inappropriate contentea indeed has a broad lexical range that spreads from sexual vice to idolatry, however, you'll understand this term better once you realize its meaning is dependent on context. This means the same exact sexual act can be either inappropriate contentea or not-inappropriate contentea based on the context in which it is occurring.

We see such parallels all the time - stealing/borrowing, murder/self-defense, gossip/testimony, etc.
 
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Apex

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What about the passage in 1 Corinthians 6 that does connect does sex to the two becoming one flesh and such?

I've been asked this before. As such I will just copy and paste.

----

First Corinthians chapters 5 - 7 are some of the most perplexing passages to understand. We are missing half the conversation. Paul is responding to a letter he received from a group within the Corinthian church. Concerning chapter 6, there are numerous interpretations that have been presented.

First, we must understand in which way Paul is using "body (soma)" here. He seems to use it in various ways throughout this letter and others. Is he speaking about the collective members of the church or just the individual believer? As Westerners, we think that the "you" in this verse is directed at us as an individual. However, the Greek word here is plural.

Second, we must know what type of prostitute this is. Is Paul talking about a secular prostitute or a temple prostitute? Or, even more interestingly, is this a particular prominent temple prostitute or prostitute-figure - like Aphrodite, who was known as the patroness of prostitutes. The Greek actually says "the prostitute" in this verse. If a prostitute with some type of idolatrous connection is in view here, this passage could mean not to co-mingle allegiances between one deity over another - Christ vs Idol. In this case, by participating in an activity that occurs during the festivities of idol worship - having sex with temple prostitutes. Some former-pagan Christians thought their freedom extended to even such activities as long as they knew the idol was not real. This is the same argument Paul makes about eating sacrificed meat in an idol's temple later in this letter (1 Corinthians 10:14-22). Paul might have used the one flesh analogy to represent the relationship one has with the deity they worship. The temple prostitute's "body" is not her physical body but represents the members of her faith (idol), much like how we our members of Christ.

This matches my definition of how "one flesh" is actually about being covenant and kinship bound. These metaphors (marriage and adoption) are used many times in Scripture to represent our relationship with God.
 
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redleghunter

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Don't know what the statistic is, so not sure what "so many" means. But I can say for sure the possible reasons behind this attitude:
1. Many Christians came out of a lifestyle of sexual perversion and have lots of trouble with it.
2. There are many liberals in the churches who commit sexual immorality and it is a bad influence on young and naive Christians. Since "so many" Christians are falling prey to the immorality of society, the "pendulum" swings against it.
3. There is a tradition that temptation itself is sinful, and they deem that being tempted is the "sinful nature" (which cannot be supported by scripture).
4. It may be that some of those people are simply trying to say that sexual immorality is wrong, but the communication gets muddled by either the speaker or the listener or both.
TD:)
I don't even know if the OP means within marriage.

It's clear "sexual enjoyment" outside of a one man one woman marriage is fornication.
 
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redleghunter

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I mean why do christians view sex for reproduction as the only reason for sex. Then there are christians that think sexual desire itself is sinful(they think lust=sexual desire, It does not by the way) I have encountered this form of thinking more then a couple of times.
You mean sexual desire for one's spouse? I think @St_Worm2 explained it is not in his post above.
 
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redleghunter

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Yes, Just look at "The idea that masturbation wrong" thread in the liberal forum. There was someone there talking about how they struggled with there sexual desire itself, as if there natural sexual desire inherently wrong. Then there was the "masturbation is wrong because it is not procreation" type of thinking.
Probably the wrong type of thinking.

Meaning if someone struggles with masturbation the approach should be with every other action we take. We should always examine ourselves and ask the question "is what I do honoring the Lord and glorifying Him?"

Take this approach and many things in our daily lives would be examined closely.

There was a young man who asked a Christian woman he trusted if viewing inappropriate content was wrong. She kind of turned the tables and asked if he would watch inappropriate content with his mother in the room. Of course he was shocked and said "No!"
She then asked why would he do so before God.

I think as we walk with Christ it is important to understand:

"Do not present your members to sin as instruments for unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who have been brought from death to life, and your members to God as instruments for righteousness." (Romans 6:13)
 
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redleghunter

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It also seems that some of this thinking has been inherited by protestant churches

Hebrews 13
4 Marriage is to be held in honor among all, and the marriage bed is to be undefiled; for fornicators and adulterers God will judge

The above is from the NT. I think such is quite clear on why the early church valued marriage.
 
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redleghunter

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The odd thing is that you can also get the fullblown sacramental approach to sexuality whereby it's considered too sacred to be explored outside of the bounds of marriage. I can well imagine that the idea that it's vile and demeaning is often lurking beneath the surface even there, though.
The NT is clear any sexual relations outside of marriage is fornication and sin. Has little to do with sacramental approach.

Sex and marriage is quite similar to every other relation. There is God's design and then there is fallen man's design.

Throughout history both designs have been in conflict.

For some reason we puny hu-mans think we know better than God's design.
 
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redleghunter

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Sure thing.

Starting in verse 21, we see Jesus contrast certain Mosaic laws along with their traditional interpretations to his own expanded interpretations. He does this to show how the fulfillment of these laws will not signify abolishment, but instead will represent the establishment of a new covenant in which God's law is internalized in a way that prevents it from being fully encapsulated in a list of rules. The objectives of our hearts become the new focus of righteous behavior.

Matthew 5:27-28

You have heard that it was said, "Do not commit adultery." But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to desire [ἐπιθυμέω] her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

The Greek word ἐπιθυμέω (epithumeō) in this context means to have sexual interest in someone and includes the lexical sense of craving to engage in an activity which is morally wrong. This parallels the concept of coveting. As such, many translations have chosen to use the more forceful word 'lust' instead of 'desire'. Unfortunately, there has been a tendency within many Christian communities to misconstrue or underemphasize the intentional and goal-oriented nature of such a desire.

For example, John MacArthur, in his commentary on Matthew, believes Jesus was condemning any action that leads to deliberate sexual excitement that does not solely focus on one's spouse. Talk about an impossible task! This interpretation is in error because it fails to accurately identify both the literary context and grammar of this passage. When both of these are considered they reveal that these verses express purpose and involves contemplating the steps to adultery in one's imagination. As such, the concern is with the internal motivation that leads to the actual act of adultery and not exclusively the look itself.

This interpretation is grammatically justifiable (which is why the ESV uses "lustful intent") and suggests that Jesus did not have mere sexual arousal or fantasy in mind, instead he was condemning those who wish to go beyond their mind's eye. This same conclusion is provided by Newman and Stine in their textual commentary on Matthew: "It is important to note that this verse does not just refer to noticing a woman as attractive, or even to a brief recognition that she is sexually appealing. It refers instead to actually contemplating having sex with her, that is, to having the intention of doing so." [1]

In such a case, one is considered guilty of adultery even if they never get to accomplish their goal. This is because their crime was premeditated. In a culture where young people generally have to arrange their marriages without their parents help, we might be in trouble if Jesus meant mere sexual attraction!

1. Barclay Moon Newman and Philip C. Stine, A Handbook on the Gospel of Matthew, UBS Handbook Series (New York: United Bible Societies, 1992), 137–138.
You did a great job showing the difference between lust and the usual "desire" or "how can I not make a compass point north?"

However your presentation in no way supports your laundry list as being in the desire realm vs. lust realm.

Frankly Jesus is showing the law should be written on our hearts in Matthew chapter 5. Idols are usually created in the heart before we make them with our hands. Jesus was showing mere physical adherence to the law is not what is judged but our hearts.

So I think you are giving poor advice to struggling or younger Christians by suggesting the below quoted is "ok."

Depending on context...
It is not a sin to have sexual desires.
It is not a sin to have sexual fetishes.
It is not a sin to have sexual fantasies.
It is not a sin to touch.
It is not a sin to enjoy ethically-produced inappropriate contentography.
It is not a sin to have non-marital sex - of any kind!

Let's review two context or otherwise.

Masturbation. Does it honor God? No. Nor does stuffing yourself with donuts and destroying your body with alcohol. Did God intend for us to use our bodies like a musical instrument? No. So bad advice.

Sex outside of marriage. Clearly not supported in the NT. Any sexual relations outside of the one man one woman marriage is fornication and against God's design (Matthew 19:1-12).

I will need to know what you mean by "ethically produced inappropriate contentography."

Thanks.
 
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redleghunter

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As for non-marital sex, love just means making wise and prudent sexual decisions. This obviously excludes adultery, having sex with random people, and includes ensuring all other risks are minimized. We do this with other activities in our lives. Take for instance driving in a car. We don't steal and drive other people's cars, we don't hitchhike, and we wear a seat belt to minimizes the risks if a crash happens.

The problem is people see sex as sacred and connect it solely with marriage. This idea is foreign to the Bible. It must be read into it.

Jesus made clear God's design for marriage in Matthew 19:1-12. And 1 Corinthians 7:1-8 shows it is better to marry than burn in our passions.

Fornication means illicit sex. Sex outside of the marriage design of God is illicit sex.
 
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redleghunter

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I meant to talk about inappropriate contentea too.

inappropriate contentea indeed has a broad lexical range that spreads from sexual vice to idolatry, however, you'll understand this term better once you realize its meaning is dependent on context. This means the same exact sexual act can be either inappropriate contentea or not-inappropriate contentea based on the context in which it is occurring.

We see such parallels all the time - stealing/borrowing, murder/self-defense, gossip/testimony, etc.
Broad lexical range seems to mean to you one can pick and choose the lexical context. That's not exegesis but eisegesis.
 
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redleghunter

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Paul might have used the one flesh analogy to represent the relationship one has with the deity they worship. The temple prostitute's "body" is not her physical body but represents the members of her faith (idol), much like how we our members of Christ.
Or Paul was using the one flesh as Christ used it in Matthew 19.
 
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Apex

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Let's review two context or otherwise.

Masturbation. Does it honor God? No. Nor does stuffing yourself with donuts and destroying your body with alcohol. Did God intend for us to use our bodies like a musical instrument? No. So bad advice.

I've heard this type of argument a lot. It comes from the passage I was just discussing in 1 Corinthians 6. That passage is talking about idolatry and the temple imagery is very suggestive of this idea. Paul says the corporate body of believers are not only the members of Christ but are also the temple of the Holy Spirit. Most people don't notice that the Greek word for "you" in 1 Corinthians 3:16-17 is plural and the word for temple is singular. Together we are the temple, not individually. God doesn't have millions of little temples running around. Peter uses a beautiful metaphor for this spiritual reality. He calls believers "living stones" who are being built together into "a spiritual house for a holy priesthood" (1 Peter 2:5).

Do you not know that you (plural) are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you (plural)? If anyone destroys God’s temple (singular), God will destroy him. For God’s temple is holy, and you (plural) are that temple (singular).

It helps to understand the situation in Corinth and how the pagans worshiped in their own temples. They would sacrifice an animal in front of the idol, they would then cook it, serve it on a feasting area/table adjacent to the temple, the idol was invited to be the guest of honor, they would eat and drink, and then have sex with temple prostitutes. Paul makes reference to this outline in 1 Corinthians 10:7 ("play" is a euphemism for sex). This common association in the larger culture would explain why sexual immorality and idol food are also always linked in the New Testament (i.e. Acts 15:29, Revelation 2:14, 20). This is why engaging in corporate idolatrous activities, such as having group sex with temple prostitutes (1 Corinthians 6) and eating food sacrificed to idols in public (1 Corinthians 10) was not glorifying or honoring to the holy corporate "body" in which all Christians are member of, namely, the temple of the true God. In this way, 1 Corinthians 6:18 actually makes sense.

Every other sin a person commits is outside the body, but the sexually immoral (inappropriate contenteuo) person sins against his own body.

Note that the word "other" is not actually in the Greek, but is artificially added by many translators (ex. ESV, NIV, and NASB) because they can't make sense of the verse without it. However, when temple prostitution (inappropriate contente) is made the context of v.18, it makes sense as Paul originally wrote it. The only sin that can affect the inside of a believer's "corporate body" is one where he attempts to mingle his religious allegiance with another deity (idol). Again Paul makes the same argument in chapter 10, but this time with food. While strong Christians could eat such meat in private (because the meat by itself is nothing but meat), they were not allowed to do this type of activity in front of weak Christians or in the idol's temple. We see this all through chapter 9 and 10. Public association was the sin.

In short, honoring God with our actions involves the context in which those activities occur. The better question would be "Does this dishonor God?". Otherwise you're left with other odd questions, like "Does defecation honor God?", "Does vomiting honor God?", "Does driving a car honor God?", or "Does sleeping honor God?" None of those make any sense - just like your masturbation question. Masturbation is a healthy activity if done in moderation.

Sex outside of marriage. Clearly not supported in the NT. Any sexual relations outside of the one man one woman marriage is fornication and against God's design (Matthew 19:1-12).

Matthew 19 is about divorce and marriage. Not about sex. Being "one flesh" has no sexual connotations. It just means having a kinship bond with your wife. I have a whole thread on this if you want to read it: One flesh

In that same thread I responded to Matthew 19:9: Divorce "except for inappropriate contentea"

Do you believe that Jacob was in sin when he slept with Rachel? She was Jacob's second wife.
Do you believe that David was in sin when he slept with one of his concubines? They were not his wives.

I will need to know what you mean by "ethically produced inappropriate contentography."

I'll give you an example we can both probably agree on: A Christian heterosexual married couple video tape themselves have sex in private. That end product is ethically-produced inappropriate contentography.
 
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redleghunter

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I've heard this type of argument a lot.

That could be quite possible as honoring Christ in our deeds is a NT and apostolic teaching.

It comes from the passage I was just discussing in 1 Corinthians 6. That passage is talking about idolatry and the temple imagery is very suggestive of this idea.

I was not referring to 1 Corinthians 6. I was referring to Romans 6. I will use the literal word for word translation Lexham English Bible (LEB):

Romans 6: LEB

12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body, so that you obey its desires, 13 and do not present your members to sin as instruments of unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who are alive from the dead, and your members to God as instruments of righteousness. 14 For sin will not be master over you, because you are not under law, but under grace.

As for "that passage is talking about idolatry" you assume this and quote a minority scholar opinion. The assertion Paul is speaking of idolatrous temple imagery is nowhere established in the text. I do agree all of our fleshly sins has its root in idolatry as we all in our fallen state create 'an idol' in our hearts before we 'create it with our hands' that is manifest in action. Idolatry from Exodus to Revelation is all about replacing God with something more important to us.


Paul says the corporate body of believers are not only the members of Christ but are also the temple of the Holy Spirit.

Frankly a play on words. This letter is addressed to all in the Corinth assembly. Of course the plural would be used to address all. Just as a pastor on a pulpit across the world today would use 'you' to address his assembly in sermon and not call everyone out by name (singular). You would also have to go against every other teaching of Paul where he calls individuals to holiness.

You pigeon hole yourself with using the 'corporate you' for church as that becomes meaningless when compared o Romans 6 as I quoted above and confirmed here:

1 Thessalonians 4: LEB

4 Finally therefore, brothers, we ask you and appeal to you in the Lord Jesus that, just as you have received from us how it is necessary for you to live and to please God, just as indeed you are living, that you progress even more. 2 For you know what commands we gave to you through the Lord Jesus. 3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you abstain from sexual immorality; 4 that each of you know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, 5 not in lustful passion, just as also the Gentiles who do not know God; 6 not to transgress and to exploit his brother in the matter, because the Lord is the one who avenges concerning all these things, just as also we told you beforehand and testified solemnly. 7 For God did not call us to impurity, but in holiness. 8 Therefore the one who rejects this is not rejecting man, but God, who also gives his Holy Spirit to you.

Who is the 'you' above? Is the Holy Spirit only given to the corporate church?

How about here in 2 Timothy 1? Is Paul only talking about himself and Timothy?

2 Timothy 1: LEB

8 Therefore, do not be ashamed of the testimony about our Lord, nor me his prisoner, but suffer along with me for the gospel, according to the power of God, 9 who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works but according to his own purpose and grace that was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began...

Was Paul teaching here only he and Timothy were called with a holy calling?

Was Paul speaking of just temple idolatry practices when in Galatians he says thus:

Galatians 5: LEB

16 But I say, live by the Spirit, and you will never carry out the desire of the flesh. 17 For the flesh desires against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh, for these are in opposition to one another, so that whatever you want, you may not do these things. 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

19 Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are sexual immorality, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmity, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, selfish ambition, dissension, factions, 21 envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these, things which I am telling you in advance, just as I said before, that the ones who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God. 22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, 23 gentleness, self control. Against such things there is no law. 24 Now those who belong to Christ have crucified the flesh together with its feelings and its desires.

Notice, idolatry is mentioned separately from sexual immorality.

Most people don't notice that the Greek word for "you" in 1 Corinthians 3:16-17 is plural and the word for temple is singular. Together we are the temple, not individually. God doesn't have millions of little temples running around. Peter uses a beautiful metaphor for this spiritual reality. He calls believers "living stones" who are being built together into "a spiritual house for a holy priesthood" (1 Peter 2:5).

Do you not know that you (plural) are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you (plural)? If anyone destroys God’s temple (singular), God will destroy him. For God’s temple is holy, and you (plural) are that temple (singular).

Again, a play on words as I showed above 1 Thessalonians 4:8 makes it clear 'we' individuals are given the Holy Spirit. The passages I quoted refute this notion that Paul speaks to the assembly at Corinth as church in general. Unless you believe only the corporate church has the presence of the Holy Spirit and we as individuals do not. That would need some explaining.
 
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redleghunter

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It helps to understand the situation in Corinth and how the pagans worshiped in their own temples. They would sacrifice an animal in front of the idol, they would then cook it, serve it on a feasting area/table adjacent to the temple, the idol was invited to be the guest of honor, they would eat and drink, and then have sex with temple prostitutes. Paul makes reference to this outline in 1 Corinthians 10:7 ("play" is a euphemism for sex). This common association in the larger culture would explain why sexual immorality and idol food are also always linked in the New Testament (i.e. Acts 15:29, Revelation 2:14, 20). This is why engaging in corporate idolatrous activities, such as having group sex with temple prostitutes (1 Corinthians 6) and eating food sacrificed to idols in public (1 Corinthians 10) was not glorifying or honoring to the holy corporate "body" in which all Christians are member of, namely, the temple of the true God. In this way, 1 Corinthians 6:18 actually makes sense.

Of course the Greco-Roman world was full of hedonistic temple worship. Is it your point when Paul addressed the mixed Jewish and Gentile churches he was of the opinion 'hey as long as you don't do these fleshly acts in the context of temple worship, it is a-ok with God?" This is quite a stretch as in 1 Corinthians 6 Paul makes not mention of temple worship. Not to mention this notion of 'pagan temple context' is absent in the passages I posted above, but will do again by God's grace:

Romans 6: LEB

12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body, so that you obey its desires, 13 and do not present your members to sin as instruments of unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who are alive from the dead, and your members to God as instruments of righteousness. 14 For sin will not be master over you, because you are not under law, but under grace.

1 Thessalonians 4: LEB

4 Finally therefore, brothers, we ask you and appeal to you in the Lord Jesus that, just as you have received from us how it is necessary for you to live and to please God, just as indeed you are living, that you progress even more. 2 For you know what commands we gave to you through the Lord Jesus. 3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you abstain from sexual immorality; 4 that each of you know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, 5 not in lustful passion, just as also the Gentiles who do not know God; 6 not to transgress and to exploit his brother in the matter, because the Lord is the one who avenges concerning all these things, just as also we told you beforehand and testified solemnly. 7 For God did not call us to impurity, but in holiness. 8 Therefore the one who rejects this is not rejecting man, but God, who also gives his Holy Spirit to you.

2 Timothy 1: LEB

8 Therefore, do not be ashamed of the testimony about our Lord, nor me his prisoner, but suffer along with me for the gospel, according to the power of God, 9 who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works but according to his own purpose and grace that was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began...

Galatians 5: LEB

16 But I say, live by the Spirit, and you will never carry out the desire of the flesh. 17 For the flesh desires against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh, for these are in opposition to one another, so that whatever you want, you may not do these things. 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

19 Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are sexual immorality, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmity, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, selfish ambition, dissension, factions, 21 envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these, things which I am telling you in advance, just as I said before, that the ones who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God. 22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, 23 gentleness, self control. Against such things there is no law. 24 Now those who belong to Christ have crucified the flesh together with its feelings and its desires.

In short, honoring God with our actions involves the context in which those activities occur. The better question would be "Does this dishonor God?". Otherwise you're left with other odd questions, like "Does defecation honor God?", "Does vomiting honor God?", "Does driving a car honor God?", or "Does sleeping honor God?" None of those make any sense - just like your masturbation question. Masturbation is a healthy activity if done in moderation.

Here is the context for honoring God:
Galatians 5: LEB

16 But I say, live by the Spirit, and you will never carry out the desire of the flesh. 17 For the flesh desires against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh, for these are in opposition to one another, so that whatever you want, you may not do these things. 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

Matthew 19 is about divorce and marriage. Not about sex. Being "one flesh" has no sexual connotations. It just means having a kinship bond with your wife. I have a whole thread on this if you want to read it: One flesh

In that same thread I responded to Matthew 19:9: Divorce "except for inappropriate contentea"

Do you believe that Jacob was in sin when he slept with Rachel? She was Jacob's second wife.
Do you believe that David was in sin when he slept with one of his concubines? They were not his wives.

Look at how Jesus Christ addressed the inquiry. He gave God's design for sex and marriage:

Matthew 19: LEB

4 And he answered and said, “Have you not read that the one who created them from the beginning made them male and female 5 and said, ‘On account of this a man will leave his father and his mother and will be joined to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’ 6 So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, man must not separate.”

The above is God's design. For a man and woman to be joined in marriage and then commanded to be fruitful and multiply (Genesis 1:28).

Fornication (inappropriate contentea) is defined as illicit sex. Outside of God's design for marriage (as I quoted above) any sexual intercourse is illicit sex---fornication.
 
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My reading on the situation is:
  • There's nothing explicit in the NT (at least the Gospels and Paul) prohibiting sex outside marriage. Most of the passages commonly cited (with the exception of those using inappropriate contenteia) require circular reasoning to understand them as relevant.
  • 1 Cor 6 doesn't say explicitly and isn't even on this topic. However the reasoning used seems pretty clearly to imply that Paul would have limited sex to marriage. (It even more explicitly prohibits lawsuits between Christians, which if actually obeyed would have a serious impact on the US legal system.)
  • inappropriate contenteia is complex, because it's not defined in the NT. It means roughly "sexual immorality," which in principle is in the eye of the beholder. It was originally limited. However by the NT period, the lexicon I use (TDNT) says that Jewish opinion considered it to include anything outside marriage. It's hard to believe that when Paul used it, he meant anything else.
 
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Apex

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Jesus made clear God's design for marriage in Matthew 19:1-12. And 1 Corinthians 7:1-8 shows it is better to marry than burn in our passions.

Fornication means illicit sex. Sex outside of the marriage design of God is illicit sex.

I'll try my best to respond to all your points, but you are becoming slowly unfocused. I would like to be thorough and adding more verses makes it hard (time wise) to respond.

Anyway, I would like to discuss 1 Corinthians 7:1-9. I agree with you to a point. However, in context, the desire that the unmarried were actively struggling with was sexual idolatry. Before becoming Christians, many had made it a habit to visit such temple activities. They apparently were finding it hard to stop. Under such conditions, Paul advises them to marry instead. We must remember that the culture at this time had very few legitimate sexual outlets - unlike our culture. Marriage, at this time, was the best way to find a partner to have regular moral sex with.

The question that Paul addresses in the opening section of this chapter is whether it is good to abstain from sexual intercourse. Some of the Corinthians asserted that it was good and understood "good" to be the highest virtue. Paul counters in 7:2–5 that it is absolutely not good for married couples to attempt to do so, and he vetoes any bid by the Corinthians to become celibate within marriage.

He is arguing why it is inadvisable for married partners to withdraw from conjugal relations. As he will do in chapter 8 when discussing idol food, Paul stresses the danger involved in their current practices. Eating in an idol temple may drive a fellow Christian who has a weak conscience back into the clutches of idolatry (1 Corinthians 8:10). Trying to be celibate in a marriage relationship is also recipe for the weak to seek sexual attention in the idol temple. You have to remember that in this culture none of this was taboo or shameful - at least to the vast majority of the population. We must restrain ourselves from viewing these prostitutes as our modern day nasty hookers. Plus, many of these wives probably were not even against their husbands doing it!

"Let each one have his own wife or her own husband" does not advise everyone to marry. The Greek verb "to have" is used in 7:12, 13, 29 to refer to the state of being married, but that meaning does not apply here. We should take note that the verb "to have" was also commonly used as a euphemism for having sexual intercourse. The immediate context, with the reminders about what is owed in marriage, the assertion that husbands and wives have sexual rights over one another, and the command not to deprive one another, makes clear that the phrase "let each one have his own wife or her own husband" refers to sexual relations within marriage, not getting married. Otherwise, Paul would contradict himself in 7:8–9 when he asserts that celibacy is a workable ideal for those who feel no compulsion to marry (also see 1 Corinthians 7:38).

And since you mention "burning in passion", I'll quickly rundown my thinking of verse 9. Some translations make this verse harder to understand. To the unmarried, Paul does not say "if they cannot control themselves." Rather he says, "if they are not exercising self-control." The implication is that some of these people are actively doing the same as some of the married in verses 1–6, practicing sexual idolatry, that is, also going to the temple prostitutes. It is these unmarried active participates that Paul is addressing. And like I said above, the antidote for such sin (in the culture of Corinth at least) is to get married. This might not be true in other contexts.
 
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Apex

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Is your tactic to throw as many verses as possible my way that I cannot possible find time to address them all?

This is all I have time for right now...

12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body, so that you obey its desires, 13 and do not present your members to sin as instruments of unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who are alive from the dead, and your members to God as instruments of righteousness. 14 For sin will not be master over you, because you are not under law, but under grace.

As for "that passage is talking about idolatry" you assume this and quote a minority scholar opinion. The assertion Paul is speaking of idolatrous temple imagery is nowhere established in the text. I do agree all of our fleshly sins has its root in idolatry as we all in our fallen state create 'an idol' in our hearts before we 'create it with our hands' that is manifest in action. Idolatry from Exodus to Revelation is all about replacing God with something more important to us.

I'm okay with being in the minority. I, also, believe in believer's baptism and symbolic communion, all of which are minority positions too. Just because something is a minority does not make it false. My purpose for quoting references is to show that legitimate scholarly work as gone into some of my positions and I am not just pulling them out of thin air.

As for Romans 6, Paul is only focusing on sinful desires - those that conflict with God's will, not ALL bodily desires. That would be an impossible interpretation. For example, hunger is a bodily desire, but don't you obey it? As such, my position is unaffected. Since we define what is and isn't sinful differently, we mentally envision a different list of activities when Paul says "sin". My list doesn't include what I mentioned earlier in this thread.

Frankly a play on words. This letter is addressed to all in the Corinth assembly. Of course the plural would be used to address all. Just as a pastor on a pulpit across the world today would use 'you' to address his assembly in sermon and not call everyone out by name (singular). You would also have to go against every other teaching of Paul where he calls individuals to holiness.

You pigeon hole yourself with using the 'corporate you' for church as that becomes meaningless when compared o Romans 6 as I quoted above and confirmed here:

It is not a play on words. It is not just the plural "you" but the connection to a singular "temple".

"There is no ARTICLE with “temple” (naos, the central shrine itself). The PRONOUN “you” is PLURAL, while “temple” is SINGULAR; therefore, in this context “temple” must refer to the whole church at Corinth (cf. 2 Cor. 6:16; Eph. 2:21–22), which may have involved several house churches.

The focus of Jewish faith developed into the Temple ritual and liturgy (cf. Jer. 7) instead of personal faith in YHWH. It is not where or when or how one worships, but who one is in relationship with, God. Jesus saw His body as the temple of God (cf. John 2:21)."

Robert James Utley, Paul’s Letters to a Troubled Church: I and II Corinthians, vol. Volume 6, Study Guide Commentary Series (Marshall, TX: Bible Lessons International, 2002), 48.

"Take the time to tease out the implications of interpreting the text through an individualist lens and through a collectivist one. If you understand 1 Corinthians 6:19 to mean: “your [singular] body is a temple of the Holy Spirit, who is in you [singular], whom you [singular] have received from God,” you might conclude a good application would be, “I need to quit smoking.” If, however, you read “your [plural] body is a temple of the Holy Spirit, who is in you [plural], whom you [plural] have received from God,” you might conclude Paul’s concern has more to do with the community at large. In the context of 1 Corinthians 6, Paul is speaking about visiting temple prostitutes. If you read the passage individually, you think in terms of personal repercussions, but Paul was actually worried about how bad behavior contaminated the entire congregation."

E. Randolph Richards and Brandon J. O’Brien, Misreading Scripture with Western Eyes: Removing Cultural Blinders to Better Understand the Bible (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press, 2012), 110–111.

If I have more time, I'll try to address your other questions.
 
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