- Aug 21, 2003
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This is the verse:
Here is your answer:
Because the Christ had taken on the garment of a man and was fully man in terms of his experiences whilst in the flesh, he would say My God, My God.
Until he would ascend up on high to sit on the right hand of power as the Almighty Father, the p Alpha and Omega to deliberate in judgement over all nations.
The difference is in spatial perspective of the one infinite being, who is above to the servant form one from below.
Jesus in his glorified form no longer is the bond servant, he now is the judge and the saviour and Father of all his creation.
If the word created the world then the spatial perspective applies that he brought into being the world, therefore by this definition is the one and only Father. Scripture states there is one Father and he is Christ Jesus.
The above verse distinguishes between his earthly human servant form to the Heavenly Father form.
It goes hand in hand that the Word who is declared as creating all things that ever exist in the material universe is recorded in John 1:1-4 as the Father of all.
The Word is life and life begat the world and man and the Word by definition of his one infinite being who is Holy Spirit (John 4:24) is the one and only Father of all his creation.
You have spatial perspective from a hierarchical office point of view from the earthly bond servant that the Christ took upon himself to lower himself in order to save his human family and at the same time it was not a crime to consider himself as equal to the Father and the glorified vindicated Father who stretched out his hand in his welcome wagon to reconcile man back to himself.
The glorified form does not pray to the Father because he is the Father the one and only Alpha and Omega. There is one Alpha and Omega. The glorified Son in John's Revelation is claiming the title of the unseen Father, as he sits on the right hand of power (his infinite Holy Spirit) as the Father, where his presence reaches to AZAL (eternity) Zechariah 14:5.
I can testify of the glorified Christ as the Father before you men at length, but you will continuously deny him as the Father before men. All your testimonies fellas will be used against you, I thought I'd let you know, for you no longer have an excuse by saying lord lord lord if you denied him as the Father. You very know what he will say to you if you denied him as the Father.
Trinitarians as I have stated over and over again stand to risk everything by the arrogant line they are towing without discerning the grave consequences that will result.
I invite you to worship the glorified Christ as the Father. Come and let us say Amen. Praise be to our Father Christ Jesus.
That is what you believe in 2013, in the US, after being intensely indoctrinated by whatever religious group you are affiliated with. The question is how did the Jews and gentiles of the 1st century in Israel, Italy, Egypt, Greece, Turkey, etc. when they read the letters immediately after they were written, understand the proof texts you provided.
[SIZE="+1"]1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.[/SIZE]
The above verse distinguishes between his earthly human servant form to the Heavenly Father form.
Did the church at Corinth understand Paul to be saying this "distinguishes between his earthly human servant form to the Heavenly Father form.?" Or did they understand that Paul was speaking about one who was the Father and one who was Lord Jesus Christ, just as it is written? The Greek is very clear.
When Jesus said "My Father" did those who heard Him in the 1st century understand that He was somehow talking to a different office, mode, etc of Himself? Or did they understand Him to be talking to/about someone who was distinct from Himself just as they were when they spoke about their human father. If you think they understood it as you do, please provide some evidence.
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