jayem
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- Jun 24, 2003
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An author is not held responsible for murder even though his character commits murder.
An author is one person removed from the acts of his characters.
Are we on the same wavelength here?
Example: Macbeth's murder of Duncan was purely a product of Shakespeare's mind. Shakespeare is not morally responsible for an actual killing. This murder exists only in the imagination. But only because Shakespeare created it. This is the sense in which he's responsible.
It's not that hard a concept.
P.S. But in a real life situation, if I hire a hit man to kill my wife, I'm gonna have to anwer for it. I may be one person removed from the crime, but I'm equally, if not even more, responsible. In both a legal and moral sense. Right?
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