While science considers a clear frame of reference for its questions and answers its forte, the occupation of philosophy is quite contrary: It permanently questions any proposed frame of reference.
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I came across this article the other day, and found it fairly interesting. For those that don't want to read it, the basic idea is that, while we have not yet reached ultimate knowledge about the universe, we are closer than we were before. Asimov claims that if we examine the history of science, we can see that each change in theory is not a complete rewrite, but a modification of what came before. So, going from the idea of the earth as flat to the earth as round is a correction. Going from the earth as round to the earth as an oblate spheroid is also a correction, but it is not as large as a correction. In effect, when we claimed the earth is round, we were wrong. But we were less wrong than when we claimed it was flat.
My question then, is do you think philosophy progresses in the same way? That we may not know all of the answers, but the longer the ideas get tossed around by different thinkers, the closer we can come to the truth?
Concerning the "mystery" here: We all know that "murder is wrong" without knowing science or philosophy because we know semantics: "Murder" is defined as "wrongful killing". Consequently, we do not disagree that "murder is wrong" (because that´s just a tautology), but we - no matter whether we are scientists, philosophers or peasants - often disagree what constitutes a certain killing as "murder" .Philosopher: Is murder wrong?
Scientist: Is it a murder?
Peasant (the majority): Murder is wrong.
Mystery: Why do all we know a few truth without knowing any science and philosophy?
Philosopher: What is truth?
Scientist: ...
Peasant: Murder is wrong.
I was reading some Heidegger essay, and he pointed out that all natural sciences began as philosophy before they were spun off into their own rigorous discipline. For that reason, I think it's not unreasonable to say that scientific progress is philosophical progress in a sense, and more broadly that goofy ideas from early philosophers are no more problematic for philosophy than the ether or phlogiston are for science.
On another message board someone put it like this: there has been progress in philosophy if we know new things in philosophy we did not know 2000 years ago. We do know more than we did. Therefore, there has been progress.
Concerning the "mystery" here: We all know that "murder is wrong" without knowing science or philosophy because we know semantics: "Murder" is defined as "wrongful killing". Consequently, we do not disagree that "murder is wrong" (because that´s just a tautology), but we - no matter whether we are scientists, philosophers or peasants - often disagree what constitutes a certain killing as "murder" .
As I pointed out, peasants disagree on what´s the truth.Peasant couldn't care less about definition. That is why the peasant sees the truth, but others are confused.
As I pointed out, peasants disagree on what´s the truth.
And neither scientists nor philosophers say that "murder is right".
Ignoring the argument doesn´t make it go away.
Peasant couldn't care less about definition. That is why the peasant sees the truth, but others are confused.
More thinking, more research, more exploration, more time, do not always make the truth more clear.
Are you trying to endorse ignorance?
Human knows some truth without any education.
Human knows some truth without any education. It is important to know what they are, so philosophers won't have to waste a lot more time on it.
I disagree... can you prove that?
Well a child must at least know through experience and memory otherwise there would be no foundation for tutoring it.
Do you have any exidence from "ferral children" studies (etc) to strengthen that claim?What you said is a normal case.
A child raised up by chimps, or raised in isolation, WILL develop the same set of basic moral code as other humans.
Show a single human who knows what "murder" is without any human contact and education.
Do you have any exidence from "ferral children" studies (etc) to strengthen that claim?