Pro-Life???

grasping the after wind

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Except that "pro" is defined as "in favour of a motion, issue, course of action, etc." Those who call themselves "Pro-Choice" are not necessarily in favor of abortion, they simply believe that the choice should remain with the pregnant woman.

Except that those calling themselves pro choice are not necessarily in favor of choices when abortion is not involved. Same as those calling themselves pro life are not necessarily in favor of life in all cases other than abortion. The issue is not choice or life but abortion. To obfuscate one's position by choosing terms that do not fully describe one's position shows a lack of intellectual honesty. Though there are people who label themselves pro choice that might actually be in favor of choice in all matters and there are people who label themselves pro life that might actually be in favor of life in all matters the vast majority of these people are in reality either pro abortion or anti abortion.
 
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InHisSpirit

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What I said earlier I meant truly because my last pregnancy my kidneys began to fail. The longer I carried the baby the faster the baby would drain all my kidney function. I have faced this situation and I prayed, others prayed and well I am still here and my 4 yr old son is healthy and strong!
 
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Archivist

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I never claimed the Declaration had the force of law. I asked whether you accepted that premise.

I do accept the premise that life liberty and the pursuit of happiness are unalienable rights, except that the person holding them may voluntarily give them up.

Since, as I understand it, common law depends upon the the ideas of precedent, relevance, and abrogation I was suggesting the Declaration as more relevant to this conversation than English common law - which you seem to hold in high regard.

Wrong. Cases serve as precedent. The Declaration of Independence does not serve as precedent.

So, your post seems like an attempt to avoid answering the question.

No, I'm simply correcting an incorect statement.

I asume that I know where you are heading, but frankly this would be easier if you would tell me up front where you are going with this.

I guess I don't care what standard you use, but please pick one. If you want to use English common law, I'll go with that. If you want to use current American law, that's fine, too. But please specify so that the ground doesn't shift under our feet.

But I can't give a blanket answer. You started by asking about whether a fetus is a person--which is addressed by Common Law--then switched to the Declaration of Independence--which has been interpreted by American courts and which does not present Common Law issues.

Regardless, I think you already see the point I have not yet stated. Whichever you would pick, there is the idea that a person has rights. So, if the fetus is considered a person at some point, the fetus has rights.

I assumed that this was where you were heading. If you have read Roe v. Wade you know that Justice Blackmun addressed this very issue.

How do we balance the child's rights with the mother's rights?

Again, thsi is addressed in the Roe opinion.

The only situation I know of where a person can lose their rights is if they are a felon. Further, the only situation I know of where people are allowed to use deadly force against other people is if they are engaged in a criminal act - a life threatening criminal act.

On 9-11 President Bush was ready to shoot down hijacked airliners even though that would have meant killing all the innocent passengers on board.

BTW, that is the classic Utilitarianism vs. Deontological ethics debate.

I simply cannot imagine how we would twist our logic to claim a fetus has committed a criminal act against the mother.

No one claims that the fetus has committed a criminal act. But, if it has placed the life of the pregnant woman at risk then she has a right to self-defense.

But at the very least, if a doctor determines that the danger is not imminent, shouldn't the woman requesting the abortion be required to go to court to obtain permission? (Remember that these questions only apply to the case where the fetus is considered a person)

But this isn't what the OP is addressing. We are discussing cases where the pregnant woman's life is at risk.

If the danger is imminent, then the doctor needs the freedom to act - just as a policeman needs the freedom to act.

And that is what is being addressed in the OP.

But if there is a procedure that could save the life of both then I think the doctor should be required to use that procedure.

And you are entitled to your opinion.

Even further, I think there should be ongoing research to determine new and better procedures that would increase the chances of saving both. If I new such research existed, I would take out my checkbook and donate to that cause tomorrow ... I guess that's a good point ... I think I'll check into that.

By all means do so.

Can you at least agree to that? That if a c-section or some other procedure would save the life of both, and if the only reason the issue developed is because lives are threatened, that such a procedure should be used?

So a pregnant woman should be forced to have an operation against her will? What about her unalienable right to liberty?

If not, then what rights would you grant a fetus should it be legally declared a person?

Already addressed this.
 
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Archivist

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Except that those calling themselves pro choice are not necessarily in favor of choices when abortion is not involved. Same as those calling themselves pro life are not necessarily in favor of life in all cases other than abortion. The issue is not choice or life but abortion. To obfuscate one's position by choosing terms that do not fully describe one's position shows a lack of intellectual honesty. Though there are people who label themselves pro choice that might actually be in favor of choice in all matters and there are people who label themselves pro life that might actually be in favor of life in all matters the vast majority of these people are in reality either pro abortion or anti abortion.

But pro-abortion would mean that you actually favor abortion. Most of us who call ourselves pro-choice are not pro-abortion. We simply believe taht the choice should rest with the pregnant woman.
 
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Resha Caner

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I do accept the premise that life liberty and the pursuit of happiness are unalienable rights, except that the person holding them may voluntarily give them up.

Your answer is a bit confused. An inalienable right means the person cannot surrender it. What I expected you to say (and I think this is what you mean) is that you believe in some form of a right to life, but that it is not an absolute right. I would actually agree with that - and even from a theological perspective - if theology is ever something you consider.

In a literal context (which is the way lawyers tend to argue cases), "inalienable" becomes a very strange and unworkable concept. I think Jefferson's idea was that people should not be coerced in some abusive manner to give up that right. I agree with that concept, but it would need to be codified in a different way.

Wrong. Cases serve as precedent. The Declaration of Independence does not serve as precedent.

Law is not my thing, but, shocking as it may seem, I'm not inclined to take your opinion on such matters. So, I decided to do a quick search. What I found was a study were 100 cases were listed citing the Declaration of Independence (DoI) (The United States Supreme Court and The Declaration of Independence). Now, what those cases could be claiming was that the DoI was not law. However, a further search found that the reason the Supreme Court cites the DoI so often is that it is listed in the U.S. Code as "organic law" (The Declaration of Independence Part of American Law). Now, I realize the DoI is not, in and of itself a precedent, but that seems a mere semantic issue to me. If it has been cited in a case, then that case becomes precendent, and hence the cited principle becomes precedent.

Are we going to play these semantic games? I hope not.

But I can't give a blanket answer. You started by asking about whether a fetus is a person--which is addressed by Common Law--then switched to the Declaration of Independence--which has been interpreted by American courts and which does not present Common Law issues.

Yes, it was my fault for confusing the issue. We need to clarify whether we are discussing this based on our opinions or based on what is legal in the U.S. However, what makes it more difficult for me is that you rarely give me your opinion straight out. Instead, you point to other things (English common law, Roe V. Wade, etc.) and tell me that it explains everything. It doesn't explain your opinion, as I have no idea which specific part of that massive body of work you are referring to.

If you want to cite a case to back up your opinion, fine. But please tell me specifically what conclusion you are drawing from that case. I still don't know if you consider the fetus to be a person at any stage of its development. I've just been assuming you might at some point based on statements about how it depends on the stage of development.

What you say most often is that the question of personhood is irrelevant. But that is not true, and I will comment more on that in a bit.

If you have read Roe v. Wade you know that Justice Blackmun addressed this very issue.

As I said, law is not my thing. So, I have read summaries of the case, but not the actual court documents themselves. In my understanding, the case raised the issue of personhood, but didn't settle it. It said that if the fetus were a person, it would have rights, but that this issue had not been settled, and that the court didn't intend to settle that issue. Then the ruling goes on from there to say the state has no authority to regulate abortion in the first trimester. I find that a humorous contradiction. I've been involved in adoption cases, and the state steps in as an advocate for the rights of the minor child. To say, then, that the state has no authority in the first trimester is to say no one can advocate for the rights of the fetus, which means the fetus has no rights, which means they have declared that it is not a person.

Regardless, I don't really care what Blackmun said. I'm interested in your opinion. If you are saying you agree with Blackmun, then I would conclude that you do not think the fetus is a person. If that is not the case, or if Blackmun made some dissenting comments that I am unaware of, please clarify. Otherwise, as far as I'm concerned, saying you've answered my question by mentioning Roe v. Wade is no answer at all.

And here is why the issue of personhood is relevant. The court has said it will not define whether a fetus is a person. I think it was right for them to take that position. That responsibility lies with the legislature. So, if the U.S. Congress were to declare a fetus a person, Roe v. Wade would be negated. If you supported the idea that the fetus is a person, then I would think you would support legislation to make that happen.

And you are entitled to your opinion.

Don't give me that. If I could, I would make it (requiring doctors to try saving the child if such procedure applies) a legal requirement, and then it would be more than my opinion. I'm asking for more than a social nicety, and you know that. What is your opinion? If the procedure were available to save both the mother and the child, do you think the mother has the right to refuse that procedure and abort the child? In other words, in cases where both lives could be saved, and even though the opinion of the medical professional involved is that both lives could be saved, she has the right to choose to save her life and end the life of the child?

So a pregnant woman should be forced to have an operation against her will? What about her unalienable right to liberty?

It's not an operation against her will. She's already asked for the abortion, which is an operation. Instead, she would be pressed to accept an alternative operation.

And here is what I simply cannot understand. Why are you so intensely worried about the rights of the woman, but give no indication that you have any concern about the rights of the child? If the woman has the liberty to refuse the operation, why doesn't the child have that same liberty to refuse the operation?

I'm not asking you to answer with another court case. I'm asking for your opinion. Straight out. Yes or no. In your opinion, should the fetus have any rights?
 
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grasping the after wind

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But pro-abortion would mean that you actually favor abortion. Most of us who call ourselves pro-choice are not pro-abortion. We simply believe taht the choice should rest with the pregnant woman.

That doesn't address the times that you are not in favor of choices. How does that differ from saying someone calls themselves pro life because they believe that unborn children have a right to live. Favoring one particular choice is hardly sufficient reason to call oneself pro choice anymore than favoring one life saving law would constitute sufficient reason for calling oneself pro life. If you, for some reason, object to being seen as pro abortion come up with a term that would be more representative of what you really believe than pro choice. Unless you are willing to allow choice in all instances of human endeavor or are willing to drop your insistence that pro life is a misnomer which I think it is.
 
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That doesn't address the times that you are not in favor of choices.

But if you discussing abortion, saying that you are pro-choice is sufficient.

How does that differ from saying someone calls themselves pro life because they believe that unborn children have a right to live.

Please go back to the OP. I never said that those who are opposed to abortion shouldn't use the term pro-life. I only questioned its use by those who would prohibit a woman from having an abortion that would be necessary to save her life--how can such people say that they are pro-life when they would mandate the death of the pregnant woman?

Favoring one particular choice is hardly sufficient reason to call oneself pro choice anymore than favoring one life saving law would constitute sufficient reason for calling oneself pro life.

But those who are pro-choice don't favor "one particular choice" as you claim. We simply believe that the choice should rest with the pregnant woman.

If you, for some reason, object to being seen as pro abortion come up with a term that would be more representative of what you really believe than pro choice.

Again, pro-abortion would imply actually favoring abortion, which is not what pro-choice individuals advocate. Perhaps "pro-abortion rights" would be correct, but not pro-abortion.

Unless you are willing to allow choice in all instances of human endeavor or are willing to drop your insistence that pro life is a misnomer which I think it is.

Again, I haven't said that "pro-life" in general is a misnomer. My comment only deals with a specific situation.
 
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Resha Caner

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Archivist,

As a first point, contending that "pro life" is a political label is valid. It was chosen because of the image it portrays, not because of the literal meanings of the words. But the same is true of "pro choice." One can't argue that one label is politically motivated and the other is a pure representation of a view point. In the same way, when opponents hurl back labels like "pro abortion," that is also politically motiviated. If that is all you meant to convey, I agree.

But if your question is intended to go on and define the view those labels should properly support (and that is my impression), then you need to define the context of this thread.

I could argue that you are not supporting the choice of the bacteria that live on the doctor's instruments. I hope you would agree that you don't support giving them a choice. Nor do you give the doctor a choice in that matter. It would be ridiculous. He is required to clean the bacteria off his instruments before proceeding. Likewise, you could argue that I do not support sustaining the life of that bacteria. And I would agree.

So, what is the context of your question? I have gotten the impression that you are only speaking of the woman involved and no one else. If so, I wish you would confirm that. If you think others are involved, specify who they are.
 
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Algol Omega

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Same here. I also perfer the term "Anti-Roe".

Roe is quite anti-Roe today. ;)

Except that "pro" is defined as "in favour of a motion, issue, course of action, etc." Those who call themselves "Pro-Choice" are not necessarily in favor of abortion, they simply believe that the choice should remain with the pregnant woman.

Except that when you get down to it, a large majority of pro-choicers are indeed, pro-abortion and really anti-choice. Go into any Planned Parenthood clinic, there's a reason why they won't show everything to the mother: to get her to abort.

But pro-abortion would mean that you actually favor abortion. Most of us who call ourselves pro-choice are not pro-abortion. We simply believe taht the choice should rest with the pregnant woman.

If people were really as pro-choice as they claim, they'd have no problem with telling a woman about the child inside her baby and the possible aftermath of any such abortion.


Personally, being the Capitalist and Libertarian I am, I am both and yet neither pro-life and pro-choice. If a woman is so weak that she chooses to have an abortion, well just so long as I'm not the one having to pay for it, you've saved me from the obligation of telling her that she can't. (Unfortunately, the government continues to use taxes to subsidize the abortion industry; an industry that wouldn't even be around without big-daddy regulation.)
 
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