Originally posted by Jesaiah
According to the Doctrine of Election and Predestination, where does man's responsibility come into play? If God has predestined some for hell, then how is a man responsible for where he lives in eternity? Is this just of God to condemn one to eternal judgment without offering a way of mediation for that ones sin?
We talked about this very thing in church last night and I'd like to offer the insight that I gained from my Bible study. First off, we must understand that God is under no obligation to save mankind. Mankind is His creation to do with as He will:
Romans 9:19-21
You will say to me then, "Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?"<SUP> </SUP>But indeed, O man, who are you to reply against God? Will the thing formed say to him who formed it, "Why have you made me like this?"<SUP> </SUP>Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor?
We must recognize that God does things for only righteous reasons. I think the biggest hinderance in our appreciation of God comes about when we esteem ourselves much higher than we ought. We were "wonderfully and fearfully made" (Ps 139:14). We are, however, still just a created being. Who are we to question God on what He does with His creation? If you had your own business and someone tried to tell you how to run it you might tell them it wasn't their place. Well, that's what mainstream Christianity says. It says we can tell God how to run His own business (the business thing is a metaphorical reference by the way).
We must also understand that it is only by the grace of God that we are able to resist when we do. God is not under any obligation to extend that grace to all people, nor is He obligated to extend it to Christians at all times. We make the presumption that He is though. If God owed us grace then it wouldn't be grace, it would be our wages.
Man is responsible for the choices he makes because he makes those choices. If two men would naturally make the choice to disobey God and God gives one the grace to resist and obey is the one who did not receive the grace responsible for his sin? Of course. Is God at fault for not giving him the grace he didn't deserve in the first place? Of course not. Is God under any obligation to give sinners grace? Of course not. The most common rebuttal to this is that it's not fair that He doesn't give everyone grace. That's true. Technically, the fact that He gives some grace is unfair because they don't deserve it either. What would be fair? I say for all men to be condemned. It's only by God's sovereign grace that some aren't. The ones that are condemned have definitely earned it.
Even as early as Job (Job 9:33), man realizes a need for a mediator between himself and God; how could God be just and not offer everyman the chance to have this mediator?
I think the important thing here is to acknowledge what would be just. God said, "the wages of sin is death" (Rom 6:23). The just thing would be for all men to die condemned due to their sinfulness. You see,
justice
had to be served. And it was. The only way God could show mercy to us is for someone to die for the sins that were committed. God, because He is just, could not just say, "Well, We'll go ahead and let that slide." But, there was a stipulation to that. One who was innocent of sin had to die because one who had sinned would not be a worthy propitiation to God's wrath against mankind. It would do you no good for me to die for your sins. I could only pay for one of my own, much less all of mine, yours and the whole world's. So, Jesus had to live a perfect life and then die for the sins of His enemy for them to be reconciled to God.
Only after Jesus had done His perfect work could God then show mercy.
I hope this helps.
God bless,
Don
I would like to ask the question:
