But if I assume rightly, you are a Calvinist.
I am Calvinistic, yes, but I don't claim to be a Calvinist, nor even Reformed, for that matter.
You believe that man can not choose to follow God (in a saving sense), that it must be given by God.
Fallen man, yes, and Salvation itself (I don't mean the subsequent virtues and growth in Christ) is entirely by Grace. Man contributes nothing to that change of heart. He only, as I put it, "does so because it is so" in him, accomplished entirely by the Spirit of God that has taken up residence in him. Yes, I am a monergist. Salvation is
entirely by grace. Read Eph 2:8,9 again. Not by man's contribution.
That is exactly why I gave the scriptures I did. For they show that "Salvation" is a choice.
Well, finally an explanation. Apparently you think it is obvious. But in none of them is there any declaration as to how any one fallen man is able to choose, apart from the work of God in him. While there are multiple passages of Scripture demonstrating that he is never willing, (even in spite of him thinking he is finally yielding his fickle heart to God), and at constant enmity against God, and unable to submit to God's law, and unable to please God. You seem to think that it is by the integrity of man's decisions that God can take up residence in him.
Firstly, Cain who is known as a son of the devil, due to his actions, was told by God, "If he did well he could be accepted":
Gen 4:7 If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its desire is for you, but you should rule over it."
You said this before. (Leaving aside for the moment that we don't know that to be referring to salvation) where is the ability to do well? No doubt Cain thought he could, but if he is rotten at the core, all his deeds are rotten at the core. The fact that fallen man is commanded to obey, believe, repent, love God etc, that does not mean that he is actually able to do so. It may well be that he is able to do so to the best of his ability, but that doesn't mean that he is able, for example, to love God; whether or not he has fond feelings for his concept of God is irrelevant as to how God sees things. The command does not imply the ability to obey. Should, and could, are two different things. He will not, and he cannot.
The following scripture in Job shows that one man can go one of two ways based upon their decision to obey or disobey.
Job 36:10-12 He also opens their ear to instruction, And commands that they turn from iniquity. If they obey and serve Him, They shall spend their days in prosperity, And their years in pleasures. But if they do not obey, They shall perish by the sword, And they shall die without knowledge.
Same as before. Where is that ability to repent? Should repent, yes. Can, and is willing? Uh, no.
And The verses about the Holy Spirit show that man does not receive the Father's Love until they obey/receive God's word.
Joh 14:22-24 Judas (not Iscariot) said to Him, "Lord, how is it that You will manifest Yourself to us, and not to the world?" Jesus answered and said to him, "If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our home with him. He who does not love Me does not keep My words; and the word which you hear is not Mine but the Father's who sent Me.
Bad sequence of logic. It does not say that the Father does not love him until he loves Christ. I don't know if you are familiar with the Greek manner of thinking, and (apparently) much of that old world, but in some sense it is much more logical than we are, who necessarily equate (in our minds (except when we don't—not even realizing that we don't, sometimes)) tense of words with time passage (sequence of events) and sequence of events with sequence of causation. While indeed salvation is through faith, by Christ's sacrifice 2000 years ago, from God's POV the fact of our salvation and even our glorification was spoken into fact when he created the universe. The passage does not say that the Father will love him and that they will come and dwell in him BECAUSE he loves Christ and keeps his words, but that they will do so. The whole verse is by way of defining in what way God makes himself known, to whom he does so, and who the Messenger is of the Father's words. It is not about sequence of events, but identification (via evidences) of to whom God makes himself known.
And, again here, you show no indication of how a person is even able to love God, who is at the core rotten and at enmity with God. Take all the council of God into account. Not just one passage here and another there. Read Ephesians 8, for starters: At enmity, will not, cannot, mind of the flesh and not of the Spirit.
And, as in our conversations past, I not only admit, but insist, that we do indeed choose, but only because we are reborn by the Spirit of God, the only source of valid faith.