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Gnarwhal

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Is Jesus part God and part man or fully God and fully man?
He's fully God and fully man, 100% of each. The hypostatic union.
 
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RileyG

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RileyG

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Yes, fully God and fully man but I don't understand how Jesus was fully God when he was on earth, given the kenosis thing in Philippians. Is this simply one of those mysteries we accept?
Correct.
 
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Lady Bug

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And what is the kenosis thing?
Philippians 2:6-11.

I kind of struggle with some things but at least there is some sort of explanation here. I am not a good source though, lol.
 
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RileyG

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Riley? Michie?
Hmmmm….he was fully human and experienced everything a human can experience. I don’t know if that makes much sense?
 
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Michie

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St. John of the Cross said that Jesus’ self-emptying was the emptying of self-will. Which I assume was the human nature aspect of self preservation. Therefore becoming totally receptive to God’s will. And yes He was fully God and fully human. I think a good example of this is His agony in the garden before He was arrested by the soldiers.
 
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AveChristusRex

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Philippians 2:6-11.

I kind of struggle with some things but at least there is some sort of explanation here. I am not a good source though, lol.
Far too exhausted to explain this myself, but here is an informative citation from Catholic Answers: "The apostle is quoting a primitive Christian hymn contrasting Adam and Christ. Adam, who was the “image of God” but not equal to God, tried to be equal to him (Gn 3:5). Christ, who was in the “form of God” and thus equal to God, didn’t think the prerogatives accompanying this equality were something to be “tenaciously held on to” (the Greek word used by Paul is harpagmon), but surrendered them to take on human nature and die on the cross (Phil 2:7-8). Paul goes on to note how God has bestowed on Jesus “the name that is above every name” and how “at the name of Jesus every knee should bend, of those in heaven and on Earth and under the Earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father” (Phil 2:9-11). This is a paraphrase of Isaiah 45:23, where God says, “To me every knee shall bend; by me every tongue shall swear.” By applying this to Jesus, Paul isn’t undermining the divinity of Christ, but acknowledging it."
 
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Jeffrey Bowden

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Is Jesus part God and part man or fully God and fully man?
I have a special love for verses that make it crystal clear that Jesus is God:

Isaiah 46:9 (CEV): I alone am God! There are no other gods; no one is like me. Think about what happened many years ago.
 
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Gnarwhal

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Did Jesus suffer from hematidrosis ?
Since there's no mention of it outside of Luke 22 I'm not sure if Christ had any kind of chronic condition, but it did happen during the Agony. According to Dr Pierre Barbet such an experience would've substantially heightened his skin sensitivity because of the burst blood vessels, making Christ's Passion as painful as physically possible.
 
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Michie

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When I read that passage:

44 And being in anguish, he prayed more earnestly, and his sweat was like drops of blood falling to the ground.

It makes me wonder if he was bleeding… just the way it’s phrased.
 
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