tdidymas, I question if you understand the 1689. Your posts reflect no understanding of the concept of "
"2nd cause.".................
Don, I'm not sure I misunderstand as much as you think I do, so let me explain.
First of all, Amos is talking about war with Assyria. 3:2 "
I will punish you for all your iniquities," in which He is prophesying invasion and defeat, which says in 3:6 "
If a trumpet is blown in a city will not the people tremble?" When a trumpet is blown, it means that the watchman sees an army coming toward the city. Amos was written approx. 50 years before the fall of Israel (the 10 Northern tribes), and was written to them (primarily), since 3:9 mentions "mountains of Samaria." That it is prophesying war and defeat is clear, since 3:11 says "
An enemy, even one surrounding the land, will pull down your strength from you and your citadels will be looted." Therefore, the "evil" that 3:6 is talking about is the calamity of war. So, it seems to me that the verse is not teaching what you seem to think it teaches.
Now, obviously the timing of this invasion must be coordinated with the timing of when God desires to punish Israel. Therefore, God has to instigate when this happens, and yet not be the instigator of the sins committed by the Assyrians. Yes, God is infinitely wiser than all men put together, so God can harden or soften hearts in His time, and He can instill fear or courage in whole nations in His time, in order to determine when that punishment happens. The fact that the Assyrians desired to war with Israel is their own sinful desire, and God knows how to use it for His own purpose and time.
And so it was with the Pharaoh of Egypt. However, here is what you say about that:
God did not participate in somehow magically making Pharaoh more evil (he did not need to do that)
I'm not sure this statement is altogether correct, because it raises the question why did God harden Pharaoh's heart? And a similar question, why did Pharaoh's heart need to be hardened? Certainly Pharaoh had a sinful nature, which God was using to escalate the conflict between Israel and Egypt. I can imagine that the miraculous events were probably instilling fear in the Pharaoh's heart as it was most of the Egyptians. It may have well been the weakness of Pharaoh about to give in to let Israel go, that God hardens (strengthens, instills blind courage) in Pharaoh's heart, because God isn't finished with the conflict.
Prov. 21:1 certainly applies in this case: "
The king's heart is like channels of water in the hand of the LORD; He turns it wherever He wishes." So it seems to me that God used the sin of Pharaoh in His way, just as He used the sin of the Assyrians, just as He used the sin of Joseph's brothers, such that things happened exactly how and when He wanted those events to happen. This is how I understand 2nd causes. I don't see God stepping out of the picture and letting the sins of those people run their own course (which is what it seems you are saying in that statement). I see it that God is actively involved in all details of those events.
So, your statement that what I said "
leaves evil as some purposeless thing that just happens outside the plan of God" is definitely a misunderstanding of what I am saying. But that's the very thing that your statement I quoted above could lead to. I'm sure you don't mean that, as neither did I.
So this begs the question, do I understand 2nd cause or not? And if I do, then my problem is not with the understanding of 2nd cause, but rather how God sovereignly decrees acts of men without being a participant in the immorality (or unethical conduct) of their sinful acts. I'm trying to avoid determinism, since I think that is going too far, and I certainly don't want to open that can of worms.