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God took David's child's life - a contradicion in the Bible?

bling

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Sorry, but you can't even argue it philosophically. Erasmus failed when he tried to argue for free will with Martin Luther. Even John Locke had a hard time with it. You're assuming philosophers have this all ironed-out when it's pretty much the #1. most controversial topic in philosophy.
I must not be explaining good enough. Philosophers are not having an issue with defining will=free will= autonomous free will, the question still remains scientifically, if we do or do not have will/free will.

If we do have will/free will/autonomous free will, it appears it would have to be a miraculous gift from God, which I agree with it being a miraculous gift from God, which cannot be proven. Scripture does appear to support the conclusion man has autonomous free will to make a few choices, there is excellent logic behind the need for humans to have free will and we all agree God has both the power and Love to provide humans with free will.



YES! Because God provided it. God is an omnipotent being! Your "god in a box" doesn't exist. God never affirmed your assumptions anywhere. You see the verse and then you have to torture it to death to make it say what you want it to.
I believe most of our decisions are the results of the God given genes we have and the God given environment we are in, but there are some limited free will choices we get to make to allow us to fulfill our earthly objective. I am not putting God in a small box that has only Him making choices, but expanding the box to also have some very limited human autonomous free will choices which God allows. God did not have to allow humans free will, but out of God’s Love he does at least for a limited amount of time does allow humans some very limited free will to provide the opportunity to become like God is.

You are complaining about my interpretation of scripture, but I think I have pointed-out issues with every scripture you are using as proof text. Most of the time they are referring to Christians only, specific situations (not applying to the nonbelieving sinner), and can be considered very limited. Showing God predestine somethings does not mean God predestines everything.
 
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Paulomycin

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I must not be explaining good enough.

You're right. You're not.

Philosophers are not having an issue with defining will=free will= autonomous free will, the question still remains scientifically, if we do or do not have will/free will.

Really, now you speak for all philosophers? If there's no issue with defining free will, then maybe you can post the definitive definition on it that all philosophers agree with.

You are complaining about my interpretation of scripture, but I think I have pointed-out issues with every scripture you are using as proof text.

You had to spin every-single-one of them.

Most of the time they are referring to Christians only, specific situations (not applying to the nonbelieving sinner), and can be considered very limited. Showing God predestine somethings does not mean God predestines everything.

Then you have something to boast about, and I don't recognize the non-omnipotent god you claim to worship.
 
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bling

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Really, now you speak for all philosophers? If there's no issue with defining free will, then maybe you can post the definitive definition on it that all philosophers agree with.
free will. The ability to choose, think, and act voluntarily. For many philosophers, to believe in free will is to believe that human beings can be the authors of their own actions and to reject the idea that human actions are determined by external conditions or fate.





Then you have something to boast about, and I don't recognize the non-omnipotent god you claim to worship.
We have been through this many times. Someone, who wimps out, gives up, and surrenders has nothing to boast about.
 
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Paulomycin

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free will. The ability to choose, think, and act voluntarily.

Within the finite limitations of your own physiology, of course.

Meaning that it's not truly free.

For many philosophers, to believe in free will is to believe that human beings can be the authors of their own actions and to reject the idea that human actions are determined by external conditions or fate.

1. Painfully vague. You're not naming names. That's suspicious.

2. You can choose whether or not to have ham or jam for breakfast, but that never implies that you have any control over the external environment that can have an effect on the ham or jam respectively i.e. the refrigerator door was accidentally left open, you had a power failure in your neighborhood, there was a nationwide recall of that particular brand of ham, etc. Or any other myriad possible contingencies you can't control.

Free will is an illusion of self pride.

We have been through this many times. Someone, who wimps out, gives up, and surrenders has nothing to boast about.

Then why continue to desperately grasp it? Obviously, you still want to be the one who initiated your salvation, instead of giving God 100% of all the glory.
 
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Paulomycin

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We have been through this many times. Someone, who wimps out, gives up, and surrenders has nothing to boast about.

John 3:8 always comes before John 3:16. In that order. You can never change that. One does not "give up" and then "surrender" to his own mother before she gives birth to him. :laughing:
 
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Mark Quayle

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“Will” philosophically is really free will and free will is autonomous free will. It has not been shown scientifically that humans have a will, yet. Are we all just the result of our genes and environment God provides to us and thus predestined/predictable?
Not that we are what you are calling 'robots' but even if we were, does God not have the absolute right to do as he pleases with us? What dignifies us as worthy of his respect or even his consideration? The mere fact that we are made in his image is a huge hint at his MERCY, not our worth in and of ourselves, our dignity as fellow beings with God!
 
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Mark Quayle

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God’s plan is for mature adults to have just a little autonomous free will
Please demonstrate this from Scripture. Without all the long drawn-out contrivances dependent on our earthly objective, etc. All that served mainly to repeat your mantra, but in different wording.
 
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bling

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Within the finite limitations of your own physiology, of course.

Meaning that it's not truly free.



1. Painfully vague. You're not naming names. That's suspicious.

The problem is not with the definition, since we can start with any definition and agree or disagree with the definition, for us, you are saying humans have no free will as I describe it and by your definition humans do not have free will (you say it is only an illusion). I just used a dictionary definition.
Again the Bible seems to define "free will" with the free will offering, all the whosoever's, choice people are asked to make and Jer. 18 .


2. You can choose whether or not to have ham or jam for breakfast, but that never implies that you have any control over the external environment that can have an effect on the ham or jam respectively i.e. the refrigerator door was accidentally left open, you had a power failure in your neighborhood, there was a nationwide recall of that particular brand of ham, etc. Or any other myriad possible contingencies you can't control.

Free will is an illusion of self pride.
I don’t think we have free will to choose our breakfast since it is the result of our genes and environment as far as I see and there is no reason for the need to have such free will choices.


Then why continue to desperately grasp it? Obviously, you still want to be the one who initiated your salvation, instead of giving God 100% of all the glory.
There is no “glory” in being a wimp, being one who gives up and surrendering to your hated enemy. Willing to humbly accept undeserved charity as a beggar is nothing glorious.
 
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bling

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John 3:8 always comes before John 3:16. In that order. You can never change that. One does not "give up" and then "surrender" to his own mother before she gives birth to him. :laughing:
I don't think Christ referring to amniotic fluid as "water" was intended as a literal description of the fluid. It seems pretty obvious to me he was speaking figuratively when he referred to "water" in John 3:5. He wasn't giving Nicodemus a lesson in the chemistry of amniotic fluid, so a figurative reference to the fluid as "water" would be perfectly all right - and apt.

Nicodemus is not having any problem understanding the first birth, but he is questioning what the second birth is, since it cannot be reentering your mother’s womb. There is no reason for Christ to bring up the natural physical first birth. I have not found any reference to the natural first birth being called a “water” birth, but have you?

Water baptism was practiced for women converts to Judaism as a “birth”. Water baptized the earth for Noah, making it new. The people leaving Egypt were water “baptized” in the Red Sea.

For Nicodemus to submit to John’s baptism would have been a huge change of life for him. Everything Nicodemus had work for to become would become worthless (dead) and he would have to virtually start again like being born again, under these uneducated commoners call apostles who had been considered by all his friends and himself to be way below them.

Being “born again” is what Jesus told Nicodemus he need to do. This requires some thinking, because Jesus does not address the questions or comments that are verbalized, but directs his comments to the persons next step in their personal spiritual development (what is on their heart spiritually). Jesus is not making some general philosophical statement (like Buddha might make) but is always addressing the audience He is talking to. We have to get into the context.

This is an...odd way to assess John 3:5-6 and its context. When I look at the exchange between Nicodemus and Jesus, the question Nicodemus asked is very clear and Jesus' response to his question is also clear (and direct). It seems to me, then, that Jesus did address the question Nicodemus verbalized.

Nicodemus’ first addresses Jesus with: “Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher who has come from God. For no one could perform the signs you are doing if God were not with him.”

And Jesus responds with: “Very truly I tell you, no one can see the kingdom of God unless they are born again.”

How, where, and why did Jesus come up with that response? There is nothing in Nicodemus’ greeting that would suggest such a response. It is not anything like a simple exchange.

Look at other one on one exchanges Jesus had, especially where the agenda of the person approaching Jesus is not known and see how the comments a Jesus are anything but a simple exchange.

Nicodemus as a Pharisee had all the answers and could talk a lot about the “Kingdom of God”, but he was not prepared for Jesus’ line of questioning, so did Jesus make this statement to everyone he came up to or just Nicodemus?

Jesus is not out making general philosophical statements to go into some book, but focuses on the individual being addressed (or the small group) and really what is on their heart.

To understand the comment Jesus made to Nicodemus we need to get into Nicodemus’ head at that particular moment, because Jesus is communicating directly to Nicodemus and for Nicodemus.

If Nicodemus is willing (not publicly willing, he is coming at night) to acknowledge: “you are a teacher who has come from God”, then he would also be acknowledging John the Baptist was from God (but again not publicly). “Everyone” believed John the Baptist was from God:

Matt. 21:32 For John came to you to show you the way of righteousness, and you did not believe him, but the tax collectors and the prostitutes did. And even after you saw this, you did not repent and believe him.

John 12:42 Yet at the same time many even among the leaders believed in him. But because of the Pharisees they would not openly acknowledge their faith for fear they would be put out of the synagogue; 43 for they loved human praise more than praise from God

Nicodemus did not come saying “You are the Messiah”, which he would probably would be considering, but John’s baptism was unquestionably seen as being from God, but again something the pharisees could not publicly acknowledge because: “They had not been baptized by John’s baptism”, which is where Nicodemus resided. Nicodemus knew he should be baptized by John but had to refuse since: “they loved human praise more than praise from God”.

Jesus would not go past what Nicodemus already knew he should be doing, if your not going to do what you already know to do, why go further?

We know Nicodemus was a Pharisee, part of the religious leaders in Jerusalem, was coming at night, later did speak up but to timid to follow through, seem to believe something very positive about Christ in the end (burying Him), he would not have submitted to John’s baptism, Jesus just “spoken to you of earthly things” which could include John’s baptism (not of spiritual things), will leave his encounter with Christ uncommitted, and remained part of the Sanhedrin up to Christ’s death.

I do not see it that hard to put ourselves in Nicodemus’ shoes.
 
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Paulomycin

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Being “born again” is what Jesus told Nicodemus he need to do.

No. You're totally reading-into it.

It's not something He told Nicodemus to DO. <-- Otherwise, it's salvation by works!

It's something you have to BE.

You must BE born again. It doesn't say that you must [with much forced eisegetical shoehorning] make yourself be born again. That's not what the verse says! That's how cults insert words into the text that don't actually appear in the Bible.

A dead man cannot make himself BE anything other than DEAD. Ephesians 2:1, Ephesians 2:5, Ephesians 5:14.

And please, actually click on the verses this time.
 
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Paulomycin

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The problem is not with the definition, since we can start with any definition and agree or disagree with the definition,

Then you're being equivocal, which is even worse.

Again the Bible seems to define "free will" with the free will offering, all the whosoever's, choice people are asked to make and Jer. 18 .

So you truly believe a freewill offering can be made with an insincere heart and still fool God with it, because it was done out of free will.

I don’t think we have free will to choose our breakfast since it is the result of our genes and environment as far as I see and there is no reason for the need to have such free will choices.

Then you're flip-flopping on how God essentially pre-programmed us.

There is no “glory” in being a wimp, being one who gives up and surrendering to your hated enemy. Willing to humbly accept undeserved charity as a beggar is nothing glorious.

Yet you're still implying you weren't dead. You're saying you were still spiritually alive enough to exercise your free will to surrender (which is still works).

lol. You want salvation by works so bad, that you're willing to downplay it with fake humility.
 
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bling

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John 3:8 always comes before John 3:16. In that order. You can never change that. One does not "give up" and then "surrender" to his own mother before she gives birth to him. :laughing:

Wrong verse. John 3:8. You're not even looking at it! :smile:

Try again.

No. You're totally reading-into it.

It's not something He told Nicodemus to DO. <-- Otherwise, it's salvation by works!

It's something you have to BE.

You must BE born again. It doesn't say that you must [with much forced eisegetical shoehorning] make yourself be born again. That's not what the verse says! That's how cults insert words into the text that don't actually appear in the Bible.

A dead man cannot make himself BE anything other than DEAD. Ephesians 2:1, Ephesians 2:5, Ephesians 5:14.

And please, actually click on the verses this time.

Then you're being equivocal, which is even worse.



So you truly believe a freewill offering can be made with an insincere heart and still fool God with it, because it was done out of free will.



Then you're flip-flopping on how God essentially pre-programmed us.



Yet you're still implying you weren't dead. You're saying you were still spiritually alive enough to exercise your free will to surrender (which is still works).

lol. You want salvation by works so bad, that you're willing to downplay it with fake humility.
John 3: 8 The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it comes from or where it is going. So it is with everyone born of the Spirit.”

This is talking about the invisibility of the Spirit and all spiritual things. It is not acting arbitrary, God knows.

To understand John 3 you have to understand the whole conversation with Nicodemus.

Where do you think you are going with John 3:8?

Spiritually dead people can still do stuff, by Christ's definition of dead.
 
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Paulomycin

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John 3: 8 The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it comes from or where it is going. So it is with everyone born of the Spirit.”

This is talking about the invisibility of the Spirit and all spiritual things. It is not acting arbitrary, God knows.

The wind does not blow where man wills it.

To understand John 3 you have to understand the whole conversation with Nicodemus.

You also have to understand that you cannot control your own birth. That's where Nicodemus was also confused and/or rhetorically indignant (depending on your POV).

Where do you think you are going with John 3:8?

That God the Holy Spirit is sovereign, and you can't control Him. You cannot control the new birth ("born of the Spirit).

Spiritually dead people can still do stuff, by Christ's definition of dead.

But they can't do anything righteous. Not even by accident. lol.
 
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bling

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The wind does not blow where man wills it.
OK, but man can move away from the wind or allow the wind to push him along.


You also have to understand that you cannot control your own birth. That's where Nicodemus was also confused and/or rhetorically indignant (depending on your POV).
Right, God has determined our physical birth place and time, but Nicodemus is told this second birth is something he must allow or refuses (he is refusing at the time). Christ is not saying: some are and some aren’t by God’s choice, but the second birth is something he must accept.


That God the Holy Spirit is sovereign, and you can't control Him. You cannot control the new birth ("born of the Spirit).
We do not control the Spirit, but that does not mean the Spirit is in full control of us. We can sin, but the Spirit cannot sin or participate with us in sinning, so we have to quench the Spirit to sin.


But they can't do anything righteous. Not even by accident. lol.
Never said they could.

They can for selfish reasons (selfishness is never righteous), humbly accept undeserved charity.
 
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bling

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Please demonstrate this from Scripture. Without all the long drawn-out contrivances dependent on our earthly objective, etc. All that served mainly to repeat your mantra, but in different wording.
Gen. 1-3 Did Adam and Eve have free will?

Exodus 35:29 “All the Israelite men and women who were willing brought to the Lord freewill offerings for all the work the Lord through Moses had commanded them to do.” Are these truly free will offerings?

Jonah 3: 10 “When God saw what they did and how they turned from their evil ways, he relented and did not bring on them the destruction he had threatened.” Did the people of Nineveh change what God said he would do?

Jer. 18: 7 If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, 8 and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. 9 And if at another time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be built up and planted, 10 and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider the good I had intended to do for it.

How is this not saying that God’s actions are contingent on the choices of the people?

"You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40). Note that Jesus does not say, "you cannot come", which the Greek does not say here, but, "you refuse to come", in order that you may have eternal life. It was their own rejection of Jesus and the Gospel, that would damn their souls, and not because they were "unable" to make the "choice" themselves.

Christ is God here on earth. The “whomsoever” does not mean only the elect, but lots of people, who then made the choice to accept or reject Christ. "You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40)

To say: “Christ only reveals Himself to those who God have chosen to accept Him”, means God is guilty of not helping others to accept Christ.

John 15: 22 If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not be guilty of sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin.

If they have no free will, they have an excellent excuse for sinning?

There are all the “whosoever” verses making it contingent.
 
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bling

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Not that we are what you are calling 'robots' but even if we were, does God not have the absolute right to do as he pleases with us? What dignifies us as worthy of his respect or even his consideration? The mere fact that we are made in his image is a huge hint at his MERCY, not our worth in and of ourselves, our dignity as fellow beings with God!
God cannot lie, God is totally Loving, God cannot be inconsistent (arbitrary), God is just, God is represented perfectly by Jesus, and scripture is consistent with who God is and does. God keeps His promises (does as He pleases), contingent on man’s behavior (Jer. 18).

We are not “respectable” or “worthy”, but God has promised us stuff, contingent on our humbly accepting His help as pure charity.

What do you think “being made in the image of God means?
 
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zoidar

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Gen. 1-3 Did Adam and Eve have free will?

Exodus 35:29 “All the Israelite men and women who were willing brought to the Lord freewill offerings for all the work the Lord through Moses had commanded them to do.” Are these truly free will offerings?

Jonah 3: 10 “When God saw what they did and how they turned from their evil ways, he relented and did not bring on them the destruction he had threatened.” Did the people of Nineveh change what God said he would do?

Jer. 18: 7 If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, 8 and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. 9 And if at another time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be built up and planted, 10 and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider the good I had intended to do for it.

How is this not saying that God’s actions are contingent on the choices of the people?

"You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40). Note that Jesus does not say, "you cannot come", which the Greek does not say here, but, "you refuse to come", in order that you may have eternal life. It was their own rejection of Jesus and the Gospel, that would damn their souls, and not because they were "unable" to make the "choice" themselves.

Christ is God here on earth. The “whomsoever” does not mean only the elect, but lots of people, who then made the choice to accept or reject Christ. "You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40)

To say: “Christ only reveals Himself to those who God have chosen to accept Him”, means God is guilty of not helping others to accept Christ.

John 15: 22 If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not be guilty of sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin.

If they have no free will, they have an excellent excuse for sinning?

There are all the “whosoever” verses making it contingent.

Jeremiah 18:7-10, thanks for this Bling! I said it, God can have a plan/intention for something or someone He knows by foreknowledge won't happen because of people's disobedience. I just didn't have a text for it, until now.
 
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Paulomycin

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OK, but man can move away from the wind or allow the wind to push him along.

Where is that written?

"Wind" in that passage is an analogy of the Holy Spirit.

Right, God has determined our physical birth place and time, but Nicodemus is told this second birth is something he must allow or refuses (he is refusing at the time). Christ is not saying: some are and some aren’t by God’s choice, but the second birth is something he must accept.

Jesus never "told" Nicodemus, "is something he [Nicodemus] must allow or refuse." That's eisegetically forced into the text. You never even gave me a specific verse.

We do not control the Spirit, but that does not mean the Spirit is in full control of us.

^ Not written anywhere in scripture.

Never said they could.

They can for selfish reasons (selfishness is never righteous), humbly accept undeserved charity.

Contradiction: ". . .for selfish reasons, humbly accept. . ."
 
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Mark Quayle

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I notice in none of this did you define FreeWill, nor appeal to Autonomy or its synonyms. But I will respond as if you meant it to be a human ability for truly spontaneous action, truly uncaused, truly unfettered.

Gen. 1-3 Did Adam and Eve have free will?

No

Exodus 35:29 “All the Israelite men and women who were willing brought to the Lord freewill offerings for all the work the Lord through Moses had commanded them to do.” Are these truly free will offerings?

This is a reference to an offering given beyond our outside the requirements.. Given the importance of the defense of FreeWill over against Sovereignty, it seems a bit strange that this is the only Bible reference with the term 'Freewill' in it. You may say that like Sovereignty, it is said in many different ways, but no, every reference taken to show true autonomy merely shows will and choice. This is not referencing true spontaneity.

Jonah 3: 10 “When God saw what they did and how they turned from their evil ways, he relented and did not bring on them the destruction he had threatened.” Did the people of Nineveh change what God said he would do?
No. He would have done it, had they not turned, but they did turn. Are you going to say that what he did to Jonah had nothing to do with convincing them to turn away from their evil ways?

Jer. 18: 7 If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, 8 and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. 9 And if at another time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be built up and planted, 10 and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider the good I had intended to do for it.

Seems strange to me that you don't see the 'two wills of God', taught in Reformed doctrine here. He has his Sovereign will, (or 'Hidden' will) --his overall plan-- and he has his 'Revealed' will, usually shown as a command or declaration such as what he said he will do 'if they do this', or what other thing he will do 'if they do that'.

How is this not saying that God’s actions are contingent on the choices of the people?

How is this not saying that God’s actions are contingent on the choices of the people?

Of course what God does is contingent on the choices of his creatures. Who said otherwise? That does not mean God did not cause them to choose what they chose. If we do this, he reacts appropriately. If, instead we do that, he reacts according to that, just as he said he would, and just as he knew he would, and just as he planned all along to do.

You have to ignore quite a bit of common sense, it seems to me, when you press creatures into the status of first cause.

"You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40). Note that Jesus does not say, "you cannot come", which the Greek does not say here, but, "you refuse to come", in order that you may have eternal life. It was their own rejection of Jesus and the Gospel, that would damn their souls, and not because they were "unable" to make the "choice" themselves.

How does 'refuse to come' mean 'were able to come'? You might see it as unnatural or unjust, but the Bible does not say that the command implies the ability to obey the command. The lost are slaves to sin. The Bible says that "...the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God’s law; indeed, it cannot." There are many many related passages: "No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him"

Christ is God here on earth. The “whomsoever” does not mean only the elect, but lots of people, who then made the choice to accept or reject Christ. "You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." (John 5:39-40)

Who said they do not choose? Why do you insist on saying Calvinism doesn't say that they choose? It not only admits that they do choose --it insists on it.

To say: “Christ only reveals Himself to those who God have chosen to accept Him”, means God is guilty of not helping others to accept Christ.

John 15: 22 If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not be guilty of sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin.

If they have no free will, they have an excellent excuse for sinning?

There are all the “whosoever” verses making it contingent.

This is a complicated bit of thinking, on your part. First you say God is guilty of "not helping others to accept Christ", if they had no ability to do so apart from him. Are they punished for not accepting him, or rather, for their sin? How is God then made guilty?

But more ironically, you will say God is violating their will if he changes their heart, regenerating them by taking up residence within them, without first asking their permission! Did he ask your permission to make you with original sin? Did he ask your permission to even make you at all? Why complain if he changes you for the better?

I notice you keep using the term, 'accept him'. It will be a bit difficult to find that term in the Bible. It does say 'receive' which is quite a different thing. Given the language of Romans 9 concerning vessels of pottery, and the many references throughout Scripture concerning filling, placing into, and so on, it makes sense to say that those in whom the Spirit of God has taken up residence have received him as receptacles --and that not necessarily of their own will. (Again, it is true that we do will to receive him --I don't deny it. And that we will to love, obey, have faith and so on. But that does not mean that God does not work in us to do so --it is not truly spontaneous on our part.)

What seems the most egregious, to my mind about this, is the notion that we can operate on God's level, doing things that only God himself does. We do not do 'new'. Only God does 'new'. And in particular, the Gospel is all about that! --that salvation is of God alone, from first to last. Grace is not earned by any hint of fact. To say that God is not justly capable of doing something unless we spontaneously cooperate or give him permission is ...well, the nicest way I know how to describe it is to say it is self-elevating, not God-honoring. It is not the truth.
 
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