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Question for atheists. . .

Paulomycin

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lol No it's not. There are axioms of logic, such as A=A and A =/= ~A. Those are not laws. And there is no "law of causality" nor any "axiom of causality" for you to be confusing it with. Christian apologists made that up.

No. Certain axioms cannot be rationally doubted by an individual without behaving irrationally themselves. That's what makes them laws.

For example: Doubt the law of identity and you don't even know for certain if you exist in-order to force doubt upon it. Therefore, law of identity cannot be rationally doubted.

Another example: Doubt the law of non-contradiction, and you've given yourself a license to lie outrageously and at whim.

Another example: Doubt the law of causality and you trigger a vicious infinite regress. Nothing is resolved. If it doesn't work for Mormon cosmology and "Turtles All The Way Down," then it doesn't work for atheists either. Fair is fair. Some of the best secular minds were aware of this, but few pop-atheists have ever heard of it.
 
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Paulomycin

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As I understand it, philosophical proofs begin by mapping a philosophical problem into a mathematical model. The mathematical and logical steps after this may be unassailable, but the claim in the proof may still be wrong if the mathematical model is wrong.

That is correct. Because bivalent logic is math-based.

With a nebulous concept like "God" there is room for debate about the proper mathematical model, and I assume that is why these classical logical arguments you mentioned are not the end of the discussion?

Correct. I'm trying to leverage some genuine intellectual curiosity here, instead of the same old, "Nuh-uh, tl;dr, force personal incredulity, proof by repeated assertion, etc."

By the way, what are the classical logical arguments that you have in mind? Listing them or giving some links might help people like me who are interested but who haven't made of study of these topics.

I was honestly hoping there would be an atheist or an agnostic out there that knew of one or two that were specifically and objectively refuted. Your advantage is that you're welcome to scrape the bottom of the barrel here. I just handed one guy the Kalam Cosmological Argument.

Or, you can go for any of the "big ones," like Aquinas' 2nd quinque viæ, or Kurt Gödel's proof, which computer scientists use in other applications (meaning that it works).

After all, if the truth is on your side, then what are you afraid of?
 
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Paulomycin

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Well except the Kalam. You already said you don't like that one. Are you familiar with the term "Gish Gallup"?

Yes. But I conceded Kalam. You have no accusation here.

Sure we can. It doesn't take a professional academic to spot errors in bad arguments.

Then surely you must know of at least one. ;)

Otherwise, I can simply run around asserting that God has already been proven to exist. :smirk:
 
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Moral Orel

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Yes. But I conceded Kalam. You have no accusation here.
Yeah, that's how Gish Gallups work. You say "any classical argument", I shoot one down, and then you say, "Okay, not that one, but all the others!". Pick one, present it, watch it blow up.
 
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Paulomycin

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Yeah, that's how Gish Gallups work. You say "any classical argument", I shoot one down, and then you say, "Okay, not that one, but all the others!". Pick one, present it, watch it blow up.

Per wikipedia: The Kalam cosmological argument is a modern formulation of the cosmological argument for the existence of God. It is named after the kalam (medieval Islamic scholasticism) from which its key ideas originated. It was popularized in the western world by William Lane Craig in his book, The Kalām Cosmological Argument (1979).

Even the Persian Muslim source is 11th century, which is still considered pretty new by comparison.
 
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Moral Orel

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No. Certain axioms cannot be rationally doubted by an individual without behaving irrationally themselves. That's what makes them laws.

For example: Doubt the law of identity and you don't even know for certain if you exist in-order to force doubt upon it. Therefore, law of identity cannot be rationally doubted.

Another example: Doubt the law of non-contradiction, and you've given yourself a license to lie outrageously and at whim.
They are axioms, not laws. You should know this.
Another example: Doubt the law of causality and you trigger a vicious infinite regress. Nothing is resolved. If it doesn't work for Mormon cosmology and "Turtles All The Way Down," then it doesn't work for atheists either. Fair is fair. Some of the best secular minds were aware of this, but few pop-atheists have ever heard of it.
Pfft! No. Your made up "law of causality" can lead to a "turtles all the way down". If I deny it, I can say that something began without a cause, therefore no infinite regress. That said, I've tried for years to get someone to show me that an infinite egress is logically impossible, but no one has even tried. Seems like something people accept as true because they feel it's silly.
 
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Paulomycin

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Yeah, that's how Gish Gallups work. You say "any classical argument", I shoot one down, and then you say, "Okay, not that one, but all the others!". Pick one, present it, watch it blow up.

Look, if you have nothing to contribute, you're not obligated to participate. It's that simple. ;)
 
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Moral Orel

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Per wikipedia: The Kalam cosmological argument is a modern formulation of the cosmological argument for the existence of God. It is named after the kalam (medieval Islamic scholasticism) from which its key ideas originated. It was popularized in the western world by William Lane Craig in his book, The Kalām Cosmological Argument (1979).

Even the Persian Muslim source is 11th century, which is still considered pretty new by comparison.
Now you're just being phony. You want to say 11th century doesn't count as classical? But you just included it in your grouping in a post to another guy:
I just handed one guy the Kalam Cosmological Argument.
See? In one conversation you consider it part of your list that you've conceded, but you want to try and pretend it isn't when you talk with me. You know everyone posting can read all your posts to everyone else, right? Show a little honesty, geez!
 
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Paulomycin

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They are axioms, not laws. You should know this.

So I'm accused of gish gallop, but you can freely engage in proof by repeated assertion, even after objective refutation? Is that how this works?

Pfft! No. Your made up "law of causality" can lead to a "turtles all the way down". If I deny it, I can say that something began without a cause, therefore no infinite regress. That said, I've tried for years to get someone to show me that an infinite egress is logically impossible, but no one has even tried.

Infinite regress is logically impossible because it never comes to a logical conclusion about anything. It just kicks-the-can down the road to infinity.

If I deny it, I can say that something began without a cause, therefore no infinite regress.

Correct. Like a Prime Mover (edit: But not really, because only things that begin to exist necessarily have a cause). One cannot assume that all causes are also necessary effects. The law of causality is *only* "all effects necessarily require an antecedent cause." This law doesn't necessarily apply to all causes. Get it?

The law of causality is the abstract logical relationship between cause and effect.

NOT "cause & things." <-- That's the imbecilic interpretation of it.

NOT "Everything requires a cause." <-- That's still "cause & things."

QUESTION:

"If God made the world/universe...then who made God?'

This is the "gotcha" argument that tries to counter the causality argument for God. There's a lot of history on this.

It originates from Bertrand Russell via his godfather John Stuart Mill (ironic, I know).

At one point Russell was theistic, until he read Mill's argument, "If everything requires a cause then who created God?"

Which is a gross error in the definition of law of causality. An error Russell took to his grave. But an error atheists tend to perpetuate regardless.

The law of causality is not "everything requires a cause," but rather, "Every effect requires an antecedent cause."

Every thing in the universe is an effect.

"God" is never defined as a contingent effect (being a Prime Mover).

Ta-daaa!

Conclusion: The causality argument is still in-play, as it has been that way all along.

Seems like something people accept as true because they feel it's silly.

You mean like atheism?
 
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Paulomycin

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Now you're just being phony. You want to say 11th century doesn't count as classical? But you just included it in your grouping in a post to another guy:

It's debatable, but that doesn't make it William Lane Craig's Kalam either. <-- Which, I conceded. You don't seem to be very happy with your easy win.

Again, it clearly says Kalam is modern.
 
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Moral Orel

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So I'm accused of gish gallop, but you can freely engage in proof by repeated assertion, even after objective refutation? Is that how this works?
Yes, you are Gish Galloping. You didn't offer an objective refutation. They're called axioms because you have to accept them without being able to prove them. If you could prove them then they would be laws. We accept them because of pragmatic reasons, not because we have a reason to actually justify them as true.
Infinite regress is logically impossible because it never comes to a logical conclusion about anything. It just kicks-the-can down the road to infinity.
Why does anything have to come to a logical conclusion?
Correct. Like a Prime Mover. One cannot assume that all causes are also necessary effects. The law of causality is *only* "all effects necessarily require an antecedent cause." This law doesn't necessarily apply to all causes. Get it?

The law of causality is the abstract logical relationship between cause and effect.

NOT "cause & things." <-- That's the imbecilic interpretation of it.

NOT "Everything requires a cause." <-- That's still "cause & things."

QUESTION:

"If God made the world/universe...then who made God?'

This is the "gotcha" argument that tries to counter the causality argument for God. There's a lot of history on this.

It originates from Bertrand Russell via his godfather John Stuart Mill (ironic, I know).

At one point Russell was theistic, until he read Mill's argument, "If everything requires a cause then who created God?"

Which is a gross error in the definition of law of causality. An error Russell took to his grave. But an error atheists tend to perpetuate regardless.

The law of causality is not "everything requires a cause," but rather, "Every effect requires an antecedent cause."

Every thing in the universe is an effect.

"God" is never defined as a contingent effect (being a Prime Mover).

Ta-daaa!

Conclusion: The causality argument is still in-play, as it has been that way all along.
What does any of that have to do with what I actually said? Without your made up "law of causality" I can declare that the universe began to exist without a cause. So it's premise 2 that would fail. You claimed that ignoring your made up "law of causality" leads to an infinite regress. No it doesn't, see?
You mean like atheism?
What do I accept as true because I'm an atheist?
 
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Moral Orel

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Which is not the point of the OP. :)
Yeah, the point of the OP was to Gish Gallup all over the place, all the while narrowly defining how people can respond so that responses are few thereby producing the illusion that the arguments you don't dare present are good.
 
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Paulomycin

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Yes, you are Gish Galloping. You didn't offer an objective refutation.

Pretending the objective refutation didn't really happen because you're gainsaying doesn't count.

They're called axioms because you have to accept them without being able to prove them.

Because if you doubt them (demand proof) you are objectively guilty of real misology here. Just as I demonstrated. Please don't pretend that didn't happen. I really hate having to repeat myself.

If you could prove them then they would be laws.

They are in and of themselves, tautological proofs. They are the gold standard for logical argument.

We accept them because of pragmatic reasons, not because we have a reason to actually justify them as true.

Except for reason itself (emphasis mine). The laws are the ground rules of reason. If they don't exist, then welcome to absurdism. You can stop trying to reason anytime, because you don't even have a pragmatic reason to continue.

Why does anything have to come to a logical conclusion?

It does if you value reason.

What does any of that have to do with what I actually said?

It has every-thing to do with what you said.

Without your made up "law of causality" I can declare that the universe began to exist without a cause.

Please, stop contradicting yourself. :smiley:

Anything that begins to exist is necessarily finite. Thus, it necessarily requires a cause.

Otherwise, you're a misologist, an absurdist, or insane. <-- Which are perfectly acceptable options. I happen to know a few existential absurdist atheists who abandoned logic years ago. The point is that if you value reason, you need to be consistent about it. These laws are the source of that (intellectually honest) consistency.

So it's premise 2 that would fail.

What "premise 2?" I'm just explaining the rule itself. You can't dismiss the law just because you don't like it.

What do I accept as true because I'm an atheist?

You find theism as arbitrarily "silly," therefore atheism is true. <-- No?
 
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Moral Orel

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Pretending the objective refutation didn't really happen because you're gainsaying doesn't count.
Learn what an axiom is.
Because if you doubt them (demand proof) you are objectively guilty of real misology here. Just as I demonstrated. Please don't pretend that didn't happen. I really hate having to repeat myself.

They are in and of themselves, tautological proofs. They are the gold standard for logical argument.
If they prove themselves then your arguing is circular and is bad reasoning.
Except for reason itself (emphasis mine). The laws are the ground rules of reason. If they don't exist, then welcome to absurdism. You can stop trying to reason anytime, because you don't even have a pragmatic reason to continue.
Yeah, we accept them for pragmatic reasons. The world is hard to navigate if you assume it's absurd, so we assume it isn't because we're pragmatic.
It does if you value reason.
Then what is that reason?
It has every-thing to do with what you said.
Nothing. You're just taking atheist arguments you've heard before and pretending I said them. I'm an odd duck, you aren't going to hear boilerplate arguments from me. If that's all you can refute, you better give up now.
Please, stop contradicting yourself. :smiley:

Anything that begins to exist is necessarily finite. Thus, it necessarily requires a cause.
Why?
Otherwise, you're a misologist, an absurdist, or insane. <-- Which are perfectly acceptable options. I happen to know a few existential absurdist atheists who abandoned logic years ago. The point is that if you value reason, you need to be consistent about it. These laws are the source of that (intellectually honest) consistency.
There is no "law of causality". The axioms of logic contain no such thing.
What "premise 2?" I'm just explaining the rule itself. You can't dismiss the law just because you don't like it.
I dismiss the law because it doesn't exist. You made it up. I've looked.
You find theism as arbitrarily "silly," therefore atheism is true. <-- No?
I don't believe God exists. What do you think I do believe because of that?
 
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Paulomycin

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Learn what an axiom is.

1. I'm not arguing to literally all axioms.
2. The axioms I am referring to are tautological, therefore absolute laws.

If they prove themselves then your arguing is circular and is bad reasoning.

Because tautological truths are an exception. Moreover, to get around the accusation of circularity, all one has to do is observe the necessarily absurd lengths one has to go to in-order to doubt these laws. You cannot claim to value reason and be a selective misologist at the same time.

Yeah, we accept them for pragmatic reasons. The world is hard to navigate if you assume it's absurd, so we assume it isn't because we're pragmatic.

You're simply going redundant again. You have literally no reason to appeal to pragmatism.

Then what is that reason?

A proper understanding of the definition of law of causality, "All effects necessarily require an antecedent cause." Not: "Everything requires a cause."

Sometimes truncated versions of a rule leave it open to error. . .or cheating.

Nothing. You're just taking atheist arguments you've heard before and pretending I said them. I'm an odd duck, you aren't going to hear boilerplate arguments from me. If that's all you can refute, you better give up now.

Please calm down. It's an example from two of the most famous philosophers in history, both of whom are highly respected by modern atheists. If they were capable of making that error, then anyone can.


Because you clearly stated "begin," and you can't equivocate it.

There is no "law of causality". The axioms of logic contain no such thing.

It's definitely on the list. Law of causality is simply law of identity in motion. Where was it ever refuted?

I dismiss the law because it doesn't exist. You made it up. I've looked.

You merely claim you looked.

The Law of Cause and Effect, or Law/Principle of Causality, has been investigated and recognized for millennia. In Phaedo, written by Plato in 360 B.C., an “investigation of nature” is spoken of concerning causality, wherein “the causes of everything, why each thing comes into being and why it perishes and why it exists” are discussed (Plato, 1966, 1:96a-b, emp. added). In 350 B.C., Aristotle contributed more to the causality discussion by stipulating that causes can be “spoken of in four senses”: material, formal, efficient, and final (Aristotle, 2009, 1[3]). Moving forward two millennia in no way changed the established fact pressed by the Law of Cause and Effect. In 1781, the renowned philosopher Immanuel Kant wrote concerning the Principle of Causality in his Critique of Pure Reason that “everything that happens presupposes a previous condition, which it follows with absolute certainty, in conformity with a rule.... All changes take place according to the law of the connection of Cause and Effect” (Kant, 1781). Fast forwarding another 350 years, our understanding of the world still did not cause the law to be discredited. In 1934, W.T. Stace, professor of philosophy at Princeton University, in A Critical History of Greek Philosophy, wrote:

Every student of logic knows that this is the ultimate canon of the sciences, the foundation of them all. If we did not believe the truth of causation, namely, everything which has a beginning has a cause, and that in the same circumstances the same things invariably happen, all the sciences would at once crumble to dust. In every scientific investigation this truth is assumed (1934, p. 6, emp. added).

The truth of causality is so substantiated that it is taken for granted in scientific investigation.

A few decades later, the Law of Cause and Effect still had not been repealed. In The Encyclopedia of Philosophy, Richard Taylor wrote, “Nevertheless, it is hardly disputable that the idea of causation is not only indispensable in the common affairs of life but in all applied sciences as well” (1967, p. 57, emp. added). Even today, when scientific exploration has brought us to unprecedented heights of knowledge, the age old Law of Causality cannot be denied. Today’s dictionaries define “causality” as:

  • “the principle that nothing can happen without being caused” (“Causality,” 2009).
  • “the principle that everything has a cause” (“Causality,” 2008).
Indeed, the Law of Cause and Effect is not, and cannot rationally be, denied—except when necessary in order to prop up a deficient worldview. Its ramifications have been argued for years, but after the dust settles, the Law of Cause and Effect still stands unscathed, having weathered the trials thrust upon it for thousands of years.

I don't believe God exists. What do you think I do believe because of that?

There at least has to be a "why" to justify non-belief. It could be anything, such as firm belief in epistemological naturalism, or belief in the exclusivity of empiricism alone.

My guess though is that you never even bothered to justify your non-belief, but rather you're substituting a "flat-earther style" incredulity instead, and calling it reason, because you don't really have reason on your side here.
 
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Larniavc

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Oh this is just sad. OP will not choose a position about any specific ‘classical argument’ because then they would have to defend it.

When faced with a suggested ‘classical argument’ (as has already been done) OP will stay “not that one though”.

It is a tired reverse Gish Gallup (in conjunction with the saucer people).

Sigh.
 
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Paulomycin

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Oh this is just sad. OP will not choose a position about any specific ‘classical argument’ because then they would have to defend it.

Motive fallacy noted. :holy:

When faced with a suggested ‘classical argument’ (as has already been done) OP will stay “not that one though”.

So I can't even concede Kalam? Wow. Besides, Kalam is modern. Not classical.

It is a tired reverse Gish Gallup (in conjunction with the saucer people).

- This is the second time "Gish gallop" was misspelled in this thread. Makes me wonder if you people even know what you're accusing here.

- This is my thread and I'm asking for any allegedly well-known and very specific objective refutations here. Not your personal opinions.
 
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Moral Orel

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1. I'm not arguing to literally all axioms.
2. The axioms I am referring to are tautological, therefore absolute laws.
There's only one kind of axiom. You can have axioms in all sorts of fields, but they're all axioms.
Because tautological truths are an exception.
If they were an exception we wouldn't call them axioms. Words have meanings, learn them.
You're simply going redundant again. You have literally no reason to appeal to pragmatism.
I just gave the pragmatic reason.
A proper understanding of the definition of law of causality, "All effects necessarily require an antecedent cause." Not: "Everything requires a cause."

Sometimes truncated versions of a rule leave it open to error. . .or cheating.
Well of course effects have causes. You're trying to prove that something that began to exist is an effect then. Go ahead.
Please calm down.
Not sure what you mean. This is what it looks like when I'm having fun.
Because you clearly stated "begin," and you can't equivocate it.
So what? Why does anything that began have a cause?

Yep, looked there too. No mention of a "law of causality". The only mention of a "law of cause and effect" is in Buddhism. Are you claiming that Buddhists are the arbiters of the laws of logic now?
The Law of Cause and Effect, or Law/Principle of Causality, has been investigated and recognized for millennia. In Phaedo, written by Plato in 360 B.C., an “investigation of nature” is spoken of concerning causality, wherein “the causes of everything, why each thing comes into being and why it perishes and why it exists” are discussed (Plato, 1966, 1:96a-b, emp. added). In 350 B.C., Aristotle contributed more to the causality discussion by stipulating that causes can be “spoken of in four senses”: material, formal, efficient, and final (Aristotle, 2009, 1[3]). Moving forward two millennia in no way changed the established fact pressed by the Law of Cause and Effect. In 1781, the renowned philosopher Immanuel Kant wrote concerning the Principle of Causality in his Critique of Pure Reason that “everything that happens presupposes a previous condition, which it follows with absolute certainty, in conformity with a rule.... All changes take place according to the law of the connection of Cause and Effect” (Kant, 1781). Fast forwarding another 350 years, our understanding of the world still did not cause the law to be discredited. In 1934, W.T. Stace, professor of philosophy at Princeton University, in A Critical History of Greek Philosophy, wrote:
Aristotle's four forms make creation ex nihilo impossible.
The truth of causality is so substantiated that it is taken for granted in scientific investigation.

A few decades later, the Law of Cause and Effect still had not been repealed. In The Encyclopedia of Philosophy, Richard Taylor wrote, “Nevertheless, it is hardly disputable that the idea of causation is not only indispensable in the common affairs of life but in all applied sciences as well” (1967, p. 57, emp. added). Even today, when scientific exploration has brought us to unprecedented heights of knowledge, the age old Law of Causality cannot be denied. Today’s dictionaries define “causality” as:

  • “the principle that nothing can happen without being caused” (“Causality,” 2009).
  • “the principle that everything has a cause” (“Causality,” 2008).
Indeed, the Law of Cause and Effect is not, and cannot rationally be, denied—except when necessary in order to prop up a deficient worldview. Its ramifications have been argued for years, but after the dust settles, the Law of Cause and Effect still stands unscathed, having weathered the trials thrust upon it for thousands of years.
I don't deny that cause and effect seems to work how we describe it here in the universe. But "outside" or "before" the universe without things like time and space are incomprehensible to the human mind. I don't declare how things must work in totally foreign environments based on how things work in familiar environments.
There at least has to be a "why" to justify non-belief. It could be anything, such as firm belief in epistemological naturalism, or belief in the exclusivity of empiricism alone.
Yeah, all the evidence is bad. That's why I don't believe.
My guess though is that you never even bothered to justify your non-belief, but rather you're substituting a "flat-earther style" incredulity instead, and calling it reason, because you don't really have reason on your side here.
On the contrary, flat-earthers believe there's evidence the Earth is flat. I never claimed, nor will I ever claim, that there is no god. I don't know, no one does, and no one ever will. That's why I'm a hard agnostic. I also don't believe there is a god. That's why I'm an atheist.
 
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