What were talking about or debating here, or should be debating here, etc, is the sins of a father (or mother), or multiple forefathers or ancestors, or parents, etc, and the direct consequences of them, (direct consequences of those sins, etc) (and not just the only naturally occurring ones, etc), whether or not they (the consequences or "punishments" of those specific sins, etc) were quite literally being laid directly upon some of the descendants (sons and daughters) of those specific forefathers or ancestors in or of the past or not, etc, and, again, not just the naturally occurring ones, etc, and if it was directly by God or not, etc, in the past, etc, and whether or not He still does it/that anymore now today, etc, "if" He used to do it back then in the past, etc...?
And my argument is that He "used to" do that, etc, but does not do that anymore, etc, but that that "changed" at a certain point somehow, etc...
But would like to hear your perspectives and/or points of view also, etc...?
God Bless!