RCrihfield
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- Sep 25, 2020
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Without sounding like asking what the word is means....a la Clinton...does the meaning of adultery imply the forsaking of the marriage? The Jews committed spiritual adultery (similar word) and that clearly implies forsaking God. Is that similar to physical adultery? Yes.But what about the adultery Jesus spoke of? Are we to assume just as Jesus says we commit adultery today, it was also adultery in the days of Moses. So essentially, was adultery allowed then and now, and it does or does not hold the normal penalty when done in cases of remairrage? If so where does the bible back that up?
I'd love to agree it's ok to remarry without concern of hell, as I feel its a terrible penalty to have to live alone after a divorce, but the bible has to say thats a fact before can believe it.
Consider Matt 5:32....if a man divorces his wife, save for fornication, he causes her to commit adultery. Commentaries assume Jesus means when she remarries, but that is not what the text says. If I divorce my wife because she is too fat then I cause her to commit adultery? I cause her to have sex with someone other than me? Not necessarily true. But I do force her to forsake the marriage. In that sense, everyone who is divorced is an adulterer...sex or no sex.
I hear you....how could God "permit" or "condone" a sin? It is hard to figure, yet there it is. If we view the Deut passage as a remedy for the sin (give her a paper and don't return to the marriage) it seems to fit in both passages. But if the remarriage (and the consequential sex) is sin, then you have God condoning sin in Deut.
That's problematic for me. It seems the woman at the well had been married and divorced 5 times. Now she was shacking up with someone not her husband. Go and sin no more. Fix it. And there in lies the controversy.
Wish I could be more difinitive.
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