Al Touthentop
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- Nov 24, 2019
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For you to claim that in Paul's time the future has arrived is simply untrue. A simple survey of the text indicates that Paul is referring to another time other than his own. Heb 8:10 states I WILL establish a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah.... NOT I have established a new covenant....
Paul is quoting Jeremiah. The language putting this event in the future is some 500 years before Christ. The future language is in the words of the Prophet, not Paul and Paul is clearly stating that Christ and specifically the establishment of the New Covenant has been fulfilled as foretold by this prophecy.
If you persist in believing that this pertains to an original prophecy which now applies in Paul's day, that is plainly contraindicated by v.10 I will put my laws into their minds, and write them on their hearts, and I will be their God.... Does this description sound like the spiritual state of Israel today??
Of spiritual Israel, most definitely.
Israel is largely a secular nation and Tel Aviv is home to the largest gay pride parade in the world. So much for God's laws being put into their minds and written upon the hearts of the Jewish people.
The Prophecy was not talking about "Jewish people."
No, your eisegete the text to fit you belief system. I repeat, the blood of bulls and goats, NEVER took away sins. I suspect you don't believe me so I'll simply reference an article by Dr. Michael Heiser who is a preeminent Hebrew/Old Testament scholar.
If "Blood of Bulls & Goats" Can't Forgive Sins, Why All the OT Bloodshed? - LogosTalk
Appeal to authority is a logical fallacy unless the appeal is directly to God's word. Paul says that the New Covenant established through Christ is the fulfillment of Jeremiah's prophecy. You have taken up YOUR argument with God. See where you end up.
This author wants us to believe that when God told Israel that their sins will be forgiven, that he was not really talking about forgiveness. It's nonsense. The reason that Paul in Hebrews 10 says that it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins is because he has already said that the perfect sacrifice was already given, and the law which commanded them was abolished. They no longer bring remission. He didn't say they could never in the past have forgiven sin.
Moreover, you failed to address my citation of 1 Tim 1:8 where Paul states that the law is good if used properly. I ask you again, how does that fit with your notion that the law is now obsolete? How can the law be good as Paul stated when you state that the law is gone/obsolete? I prefer to believe Paul.
You don't believe Paul at all. You keep arguing with him. Paul affirms in Timothy that those who try and teach that we are to go back to the law are in error. He says in the context that the law is good for instruction but only for sinners with regards to what is an abomination to God, not that we should return to it.
1 Timothy 1:3-7
As I urged you when I went into Macedonia—remain in Ephesus that you may charge some that they teach no other doctrine, 4 nor give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which cause disputes rather than godly edification which is in faith. 5 Now the purpose of the commandment is love from a pure heart, from a good conscience, and from sincere faith, 6 from which some, having strayed, have turned aside to idle talk, 7 desiring to be teachers of the law, understanding neither what they say nor the things which they affirm.
See above as I already demonstrated to you how verses 8-12 do not even fit with your belief about v.13.
You have merely asked me to ignore Paul's plain words saying that the prophecy was fulfilled. Your argument is vain and is in error.
Your explain away the literal as figurative simply to fit your narrative. If it is figurative how do you explain animal sacrifices and priests administering the sacrifices in the temple?
Why do you think this is significant? It speaks to the fact that at the time of Paul's writing, the temple was still in use even if as he also plainly states, the sacrifices had no possibility any longer of bringing remission.
Of course Jesus referred to His body as the temple but that in itself does not preclude the building of the Millennial temple. You have just committed a logical fallacy known as an either-or argument.
You keep looking through prophecy through a veil.
You are the one who wrote that the church has "replaced" Israel. The fact is the gentiles are grafted onto Israel and not the other way around. Jesus in fact, directed His message at the Jews - not the gentiles but his efforts mostly fell on deaf ears.
The Covenant was brought to the Jews first. Those who obeyed remained part of the natural olive tree. Gentiles were grafted in and were made part of the one body Christ died to establish. That you would claim there are two bodies is a rejection of the very purpose for which Christ came. The modern day nation of Israel has nothing whatsoever to do with the spiritual Israel - which was always those who obeyed God through faith - or the historical physical kingdom of Israel - which, if you knew your scripture, you would know also that the physical kingdom of Israel was in and of itself a rejection of God's rulership. Physical Israel was NEVER spiritual Israel. The only thing that ever mattered to God was spiritual Israel. And back then, to be a part of that kingdom you obeyed God through faith. Being a member of the physical kingdom didn't bring any spiritual benefit.
1 Samuel 8:7
7 And the Lord said to Samuel, “Heed the voice of the people in all that they say to you; for they have not rejected you, but they have rejected Me, that I should not reign over them."
There was no replacement, there was only a reconciliation. The only way to become a part of that olive tree today is to obey the gospel. I didn't say that there was a replacement. I said that the naming of this belief as "replacement theology" is just name-calling. It's an attempt to paint the gospel believer as somehow anti-Semitic and therefore shut down debate.
Moses and the Law is what the gentiles needed to learn which provides the foundation foreshadowing Jesus as the fulfillment of the law; not the abolishment of it.
You're arguing with God, who through Paul said that law had been made obsolete.
When the Jerusalem council debated what gentile proselytes needed to do for salvation in Acts 15, they ruled out physical circumcision as a requirement in order to become saved however they specified a few O.T. restrictions namely, "abstain from food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood" (Acts 15:20). In order not to be a burden to the gentiles (v.28) this list was the minimum requirement that the gentiles needed to heed because in the very next verse (v.21) we read: "For the law of Moses has been preached in every city from the earliest times and is read in the synagogues on every Sabbath."
This was an acknowledgement that the moral requirements were still instructive, not that the law was still in effect. Christ's new Covenant was itself a law which James calls "the perfect law of liberty."
There weren't two laws in effect. The law of Moses was nailed to the cross. Nobody today or in the future could obey that law and be saved. Quite the opposite. Jesus calls such people members of the 'synagogue of Satan.'
As the gentile believers continued to attend synagogue every Sabbath they would better understand the Mosaic law preached there and what was required of them. So for you to claim that the Mosaic law no longer applies to the church is contraindicated by the explanation give by the Jerusalem council themselves.
Neither Jewish Christians nor Gentiles worshiped Jesus on Saturday (Sabbath). The Jerusalem council did not tell Gentiles to worship on the Sabbath either. They met on Sunday - The Lord's Day.
There are not two gospels nor are their two laws. There is one law, the law of Christ.
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