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Is the KJV more than a translation

he-man

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You are not thinking about this logically. Think about it from a spiritual perspective. When you compare the KJV vs. the Modern Translations, it is easy to see that the devil has most to gain by someone believing the Modern Translations because he places his name within them and he waters down and eliminates important
You do not know Bibical Greek either. You did not grow up speaking and writing Biblical Greek. It is a dead language. Come on now.
Wrong
can you give any examples?
Screenshot_2017-11-21-09-44-23.png
 
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he-man

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Have you never heard of demon possession before? The devil is a spirit being. That is how is able to possess Judas. So again. What entered Judas? The Bible says Satan entered Judas but you think it was something else.
Huh? there is no superstitious demon possession.It was his own lusts as I said. The is no spirit being the could oppose God. You need to get back behind Jesus and not follow the precepts of men.
 
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Huh? there is no superstitious demon possession.It was his own lusts as I said. The is no spirit being the could oppose God. You need to get back behind Jesus and not follow the precepts of men.

Jesus was tempted in the wilderness. Jesus is God and without sin and it would be impossible for Him to be inclined to do anything sinful because He is God. He was also talking to somebody back and forth with something called the devil, as well. He also rebuked the devil with God's Word. So this was all an illusion in Christ's mind? That is utter ridiculousness. Satan is said to be an angel of light. Satan is also cast into the Lake of Fire where the beast and false prophet are. Again, this makes no sense in your belief.

What did Jesus cast into the herd of swine? Superstition? Come on now.
 
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Wrong
can you give any examples?
265063_b48ce4b533f30fc55dbb28d6bbd66c6a.png

So you have talked with Paul about your Biblical Greek to truly know that you are correct in your interpretation?
 
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One of the greatest deceptions today is if the devil can get you to believe he is just make believe or fiction. What about all those who were demon possessed in the Bible?
 
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FenderTL5

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(commenting on the title/OP, as the discussion seems to be in a completely different place)
I tend to think that the KJV benefited from a favorable historical timing. It came about more or less alongside the Protestant Reformation and the invention of the printing press. Yes, it's just another translation among many. imho, ymmv
 
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he-man

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So you have talked with Paul about your Biblical Greek to truly know that you are correct in your interpretation?
No, but I have talked with the Sermon of our Lord and it says that if you listen to neocromancers they will fool you into believing that they're throwing there voices to make you think that people can speak from the dead. There aren't any Spirit beings because it says ".. neither can they die any more, for they are equal unto the Angels.." Angels cannot die and your belief in a false immortal Spirit being is not valid.
 
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People have to think like the enemy thinks. If you were God's adversary and you hated God's Word, you would do whatever you could to corrupt God's Word in some way. People here are acting like no corruption is taking place at all. That to me is silly. We see even in the Word of God how the devil corrupts God's Word. We see this in the Garden and we see this with one of the tactics that the devil uses against Jesus when He quotes Scripture.
 
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No, but I have talked with the Sermon of our Lord and it says that if you listen to neocromancers they will fool you into believing that they're throwing there voices to make you think that people can speak from the dead. There aren't any Spirit beings because it says ".. neither can they die any more, for they are equal unto the Angels.." Angels cannot die and your belief in a false immortal Spirit being is not valid.

I do not believe a Christian or anyone is allowed to speak to the dead. It's just not possible. I also do not believe the wicked will be tormented for all eternity, either. I believe they will be destroyed both body and soul in Gehenna (i.e. the Lake of Fire). The soul is not inherently immortal. Christ has to abide with a person so that they can live forever. Luke 20:36 is in reference to good angels and not bad angels. The good angels will not face the second death or the Lake of Fire and be annihiated. The Scriptures are abundantly clear that Satan is a real being. Granted, he is an angelic spirit being. Angels are very real. They are not imaginary. Jesus said he could ask the Father to call down a ton of angels to protect him if he needed it.
 
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he-man

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Jesus was tempted in the wilderness. Jesus is God and without sin and it would be impossible for Him to be inclined to do anything sinful because He is God. He was also talking to somebody back and forth with something called the devil, as well. He also rebuked the devil with God's Word. So this was all an illusion in Christ's mind? That is utter ridiculousness. Satan is said to be an angel of light. Satan is also cast into the Lake of Fire where the beast and false prophet are. Again, this makes no sense in your belief.
What did Jesus cast into the herd of swine? Superstition? Come on now.
Huh? The swine were used as examples of pagan meat sacrifices. The swine died and we're drowned. Doesn't that mean your devil is dead? If your devil is dead why did Christ die to do away with it? The word was mistranslated as devils. see 1 Timothy 4:1
 
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NothingIsImpossible

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But I am not claiming any evidence of the past as a part of my faith here. I am trusting how God's Word exists today as my evidence. I am using Observational Science and not Historical Science as my test. I can observe and compare the KJV vs. Modern Translations and see tons of corruptions in the Modern Translations and see the superioty and beauty behind the KJV. In fact, even Biblical Numerics confirm the divinity of the 1769 KJV.
I've also seen some big translation errors in the KJV to. And to be fair most people don't understand the KJV simply because kings english is not common anymore.

Words like divers, upbraideth, fistfruits...etc no one uses anymore. Which is why many who read the KJV end up arguing about what the older words mean, well the less obvious ones. Though being into classic theater I know kings english, I just don't care for it.

Now I am interested though in what NKJV is. More modern words?
 
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Huh? The swine were used as examples of pagan meat sacrifices. The swine died and we're drowned. Doesn't that mean your devil is dead? If your devil is dead why did Christ die to do away with it? The word was mistranslated as devils. see 1 Timothy 4:1

I can say the same for you. Huh? Jesus was not giving us an example of pagan meat sacrifices. That is just silliness and utter non-sense.

In Matthew 8, we read:

28 "And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way."

Okay. Right here we see two men who were possessed with devils. Yes. This is plural. Demons (or fallen angels) are spirit beings and can possess a man. The physics of the spirit realm is not the same as our physical realm.​

29 "And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?"

Here we see the demons speak through this man they possessed.​

30 "And there was a good way off from them an herd of many swine feeding.
31 So the devils besought him, saying, If thou cast us out, suffer us to go away into the herd of swine.
32 And he said unto them, Go. And when they were come out, they went into the herd of swine: and, behold, the whole herd of swine ran violently down a steep place into the sea, and perished in the waters."

Here we see the devils (demons) ask Jesus about being cast into the pigs nearby instead. So Jesus cast them into the swine and they ran off the cliff and into the sea and perished.​

33 "And they that kept them fled, and went their ways into the city, and told every thing, and what was befallen to the possessed of the devils.
34 And, behold, the whole city came out to meet Jesus: and when they saw him, they besought him that he would depart out of their coasts."

We see here that the Bible says that they were possessed of devils (demons).​

So you are just not wanting to see what the Bible plainly says.
 
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DamianWarS

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kjv0101.jpg


Satan has for 6,000 years been in the business of twisting God's words. Remember how the devil added just one word to what God told Adam and thereby led to the very fall of mankind? (Genesis 2:17; Genesis 3:4). How about when Satan quoted Scripture when tempting Jesus and he twisted it (See Matthew 4).

Screenshot_2017_11_21_10_33_46.jpg


Sources Used:
Bible Versions: Are There Significant Differences? Corruption Exposed!
<Bible Words Removed from New Versions>

Lucifer is Latin and English it is a misnomer for Satan. It's hard to have a productive conversation when your only basis of textual criticism is if it matches the KJV and if it doesn't all I hear is that Satan has corrupted it. These do not express proofs they only expose bias.
 
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Hieronymus

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Well, that does not make sense because God is perfect in everything He does.
But God did not write, transcribe or translate Scripture, humans did, and they still do.

I think this is the problem.
People ascribing God's attributes to a translation, particularly the KJV.
They purport it can save you, it is inerrant and full of all relevant knowledge and that it is perfect.
Anything that has anything different in it is not (of) God.

I think it's marvellous that Christian scholars are working long and hard to get to the bottom of things and sharing their findings with eachother and with us, so that we can better understand things.
The resources and means of communication have increased enormously over time.
This is a good thing.

I can understand very well though, that it's preferable to stick with what you're trusting on, rather than being blown around like a leaf in the winds of views and opinions.
So people stick with the tried and trusted KJV.
And that's okay too, because you will come across its problems and so you can work WITH the KJV in stead of FROM the KJV.
 
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Hieronymus

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Every opponent of the KJV says, automatically, that it is not accurate.
There are hardly any 'opponents' to the KJV.
It is KJV-only-ists who oppose other translations, AUTOMATICALLY.
 
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Hieronymus

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No, the bible says the adversay enter his heart, besides the fact that if your stan were real Judas's heart would have split open and he wold have died instantly. Can you see how rediculous your statement is? The metaphor simply means the Lust of Judas caused him to betray Christ. James 1:14
Come on...
This is not a KJV issue, and it's just silly to assume there is no 'devil' or however you want to call the adversary.
 
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Hieronymus

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Huh? The swine were used as examples of pagan meat sacrifices.
Utter nonsense.
The swine died and we're drowned. Doesn't that mean your devil is dead? If your devil is dead why did Christ die to do away with it? The word was mistranslated as devils. see 1 Timothy 4:1
Look, the translations sometimes mix up devils and demons and familiar spirits and what not.
But saying there is no devil, there are no fallen angels and there are no demons is preposterous.
 
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he-man

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I can say the same for you. Huh? Jesus was not giving us an example of pagan meat sacrifices. That is just silliness and utter non-sense. In Matthew 8, we read: 28 "And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way." Demons (or fallen angels) are spirit beings and can possess a man. We see here that the Bible says that they were possessed of devils (demons).So you are just not wanting to see what the Bible plainly says.
Here is what the Bible plainly says: διαμονιαζομεν Strong's G1139; vexed; afflicted bodily or mentally; luniticks; moonstruck; illnesses such as palsy, etc. Compare Mark 5:15 sitting in his right mind; Matthew 4:24; Acts of the Apostles 5:16. It is clear you do not understand the Greek language
 
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he-man

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Utter nonsense.Look, the translations sometimes mix up devils and demons and familiar spirits and what not.
But saying there is no devil, there are no fallen angels and there are no demons is preposterous.
Then prove your "fallen angel theory with scripture! Surely you do not rely on Revelation 12:9; If you do then explain Revelation 1:1; it says "things which must shortly come to pass: FUTURE tense.
 
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he-man

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Come on...
This is not a KJV issue, and it's just silly to assume there is no 'devil' or however you want to call the adversary.
What happens if you are wrong and there is no devil? How does that affect what the Bible is saying? What if you took responsibility for your own acts? Then you cant blame it on a "spirit being" or say the devil made me do it. You have to admit that it is you who has sinned and not an imaginary superstitious creature. Wouldnt that be a better position? James 1:13-15 says it very clearly.
 
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