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A Modal Cosmological Argument

Tinker Grey

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Okay, could someone please explain how this "reps" number thing works? Only two days ago I had only 10 of these "reps," and now (well, as of this last post) I have 37,985,797,230,893.

No one knows.

Seriously, when a person acquires a certain amount of rep, when he reps someone else they get hit with a percentage of the original person's rep (rep power).

Some geniuses figured this out and greatly inflated their power by repping each other in a ... ahem ... circle rep.

At some point there was a board glitch and even those of us who had our reps turned off got wildly inflated rep.

So someone with around 37 quadrillion reps, repped you. Now you have 37 trillion. And since the time you posted the question, you got more!
 
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Crandaddy

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No one knows.

Seriously, when a person acquires a certain amount of rep, when he reps someone else they get hit with a percentage of the original person's rep (rep power).

Some geniuses figured this out and greatly inflated their power by repping each other in a ... ahem ... circle rep.

At some point there was a board glitch and even those of us who had our reps turned off got wildly inflated rep.

So someone with around 37 quadrillion reps, repped you. Now you have 37 trillion. And since the time you posted the question, you got more!

Okay, thanks! LOL!
 
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Gracchus

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No one knows.

Seriously, when a person acquires a certain amount of rep, when he reps someone else they get hit with a percentage of the original person's rep (rep power).

Some geniuses figured this out and greatly inflated their power by repping each other in a ... ahem ... circle rep.

At some point there was a board glitch and even those of us who had our reps turned off got wildly inflated rep.

So someone with around 37 quadrillion reps, repped you. Now you have 37 trillion. And since the time you posted the question, you got more!

Okay, thanks! LOL!
I gave you some just for asking the question!

:D
 
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Lord Emsworth

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Lord Emsworth,

Characteristic of ontological arguments is that they're not based on mundane facts or attributes. Typically, they rely on an abstract conception of God under some description or other and use that to argue for his actual existence.

But of course, this won't work with just anything (e.g. Gaunilo's island), so ontological arguments do tend to be helpful for showing that God, if he exists, can't have an existence like you or I or anything else that populates the natural order, all of which might not exist. On the contrary, God, if he exists, would have to be a necessarily existent being, so that if it could be shown that he's even possible, then it could be shown that he's actual, not only in this world but in every other as well. Thus, in order to work, ontological arguments rely on God's having a very different sort of existence from ordinary worldly things, which, to be sure, he must have if he is to be God.

All this stuff needs to be (positively) accepted somewhere within the premises. And if you don't it is kind of moot. A person who is a thoroughbred metaphysical naturalist, for example, should never accept that "anything [...] that populates the natural order" can't be a necessarily existent entity. For how else would this metaphysical naturalism ever work, huh?

(And ontological arguments do work with lots of things. It just depends on how exactly you play your argument. Are you married, or have a boy-/girlfriend? I can prove that your current partner is your perfect partner with a sneaky OA-style argument. ;) )
 
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Crandaddy

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All this stuff needs to be (positively) accepted somewhere within the premises. And if you don't it is kind of moot.

Of course.

A person who is a thoroughbred metaphysical naturalist, for example, should never accept that "anything [...] that populates the natural order" can't be a necessarily existent entity. For how else would this metaphysical naturalism ever work, huh?
Well, he might claim that nothing exists of necessity in the broad sense of necessity that I'm using. A more restricted modal necessity might not have access to all possible worlds. Perhaps in those inaccessible worlds nothing might exist.

Another move might be to say that words like "necessary" and "possible" only apply to propositions and that their application to beings doesn't even make sense. Bertrand Russell made a move like this in his debate with Frederick Copleston.

I don't think either of these moves works, but they are options.

(And ontological arguments do work with lots of things. It just depends on how exactly you play your argument. Are you married, or have a boy-/girlfriend? I can prove that your current partner is your perfect partner with a sneaky OA-style argument. ;) )
Of course, you can always sneak existence through the back door by way of packaging it up in whatever concept you wish to prove the actual existence of. The standard interpretation of Anselm has always been to suppose that this is what he was doing.

But whether or not that was his trick, I've never been especially impressed with either of Anselm's ontological argument formulations, or really with any ontological arguments, at least not as proofs for God's existence. In the end, it seems they always rely on the premise that God is a possible being. It's usually not explicitly stated that way, but I've always been able to pick it out, hidden in there under some form or other.

It's not that I dispute that God is possible, but it needs rational support behind it if it's to stand any chance of convincing a hard-nosed atheist.
 
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Lord Emsworth

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Of course.

Well, he might claim that nothing exists of necessity in the broad sense of necessity that I'm using. A more restricted modal necessity might not have access to all possible worlds. Perhaps in those inaccessible worlds nothing might exist.

Another move might be to say that words like "necessary" and "possible" only apply to propositions and that their application to beings doesn't even make sense. Bertrand Russell made a move like this in his debate with Frederick Copleston.

I don't think either of these moves works, but they are options.

But wouldn't these two possibilities tear down or at least seriously affect modal logic no matter what? I mean, instead of just affecting naturalism.

Of course, you can always sneak existence through the back door by way of packaging it up in whatever concept you wish to prove the actual existence of. The standard interpretation of Anselm has always been to suppose that this is what he was doing.

But whether or not that was his trick, I've never been especially impressed with either of Anselm's ontological argument formulations, or really with any ontological arguments, at least not as proofs for God's existence. In the end, it seems they always rely on the premise that God is a possible being. It's usually not explicitly stated that way, but I've always been able to pick it out, hidden in there under some form or other.

It's not that I dispute that God is possible, but it needs rational support behind it if it's to stand any chance of convincing a hard-nosed atheist.

I am by and large of the opinion that ontological arguments kinda work. (It'll have to depend though.) They just don't succeed in showing a sufficient (YMMV) God-concept. So, for example, with the further premise that "Naturalism is true" you would end up with a naturalist God. Sounds like an oxymoron, but who knows? It is never really explicitly ruled out.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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Apologies for the delay!

Abstractions occur in minds. "Abstractly comprehensible" is closer to what I think you're trying to say. I mention this because on first reading I thought you might actually be saying that these truthmakers might have something like an abstract existence themselves, which is pretty much what I'm saying!

Note the use of "occurred" (past tense). If it's not still occurring, or if it's broadly logically possible (rationally coherent, basically) that it doesn't occur at or during whatever time, then it's not necessary. Therefore, per my argument, it's not our truthmaker.
I disagree. We can debate semantics till the cows come home, but ultimately vocabulary doesn't stop quantum fluctuations from constituting a very real cadidate. Ultimately, the flaw is in premise (6) - "For any truthmaker t, if t is a truthmaker for a modally necessary proposition, then t is a modally necessary being."

The quantum wibble may well be necessary, but I see no reason why it must still be occurring.

Okay, but then what is logical necessity? Does it make sense to talk of logical necessity independently of any mental context?
Yes :) "1 + 1 = 2" regardless of mental context. If the universe couldn't not exist, then that would be true regardless of whether humans exist to contemplate that fact.

Admittedly, as I mentioned in my original post, I'm using "physical" rather loosely. Really, what I'm getting at is contingency and not physicality per se. The main thing to see is that for whatever object that has concrete existence in the natural world (including the universe, the multiverse, etc.), you could, in principle, conceptually isolate it and say of it that that object does not exist, and your statement, though false, would nevertheless be rationally coherent (unlike a square circle, for example). That's what I'm getting at.
Are you sure, though? What of, for instance, a self-creating physicality? What if there is one physical object, special among all physical objects, in that its existence causes the existence of all the others? It's the spark that triggers all the other sparks - ultimately the same as all the rest, and only special in that it came first. What then?

Well, can you name any concretely existing (or possibly concretely existing) object in the natural world whose existence it is rationally incoherent to deny?
Do I have to? ;) After all, the onus is on you to prove no such object exists. Argumentum ad ignorantiam is a logical fallacy.

An absence of anything without something else to go along it can't be a truthmaker or anything else; it's just nothing.
I don't see why not. Ultimately, the absence of any thing may well be the 'cause' - without any thing in existence, there's nothing to stop X from happening. Thus, X happens. X is a singularity, and thus we have the Big Bang. How you want to classify that in your vocabulary is up to you.

As for logical and physical laws, how does it make sense to talk of the former except in the context of ideas or relations between ideas, or of the latter as really separable from the physical entities that follow them?
The laws govern what objects do, not necessarily whether such objects exist.

I don't think I have to. If every physical object we've ever encountered and every physical object that we can imagine might exist can be coherently conceived to not exist, then it seems the burden is on him who claims that some physical object is necessary to show why it is so.
As I said, argumentum ad ignorantiam is fallacious. You don't get off the hook by saying, "We can't imagine X, therefore X doesn't exist" ;) Indeed, you haven't even proven that we can't imagine it.

An assertion, to be sure, but hardly bald, methinks. I'd wager my mountain of gold that you won't ever in your life come across a quadrilateral triangle. That's not just because I can't conceive of such a thing; it's because I take my inability to conceive of it to be indicative of its absolute impossibility. I know that it's the essential nature of a triangle that it just can't be quadrilateral, and because of that I know that such a thing just can't be--not now or ever. But in order for me to know this, my mind must have some access to the world of essential natures independent of their concrete existence.
I don't see why. The simpler explanation is, your mind can comprehend first-order logic. These objects don't exist simply because we can comprehend them, after all.

Now, if you'll grant, just for the sake of argument, that this is correct, then won't you say that these essential natures have the appearance of abstract objects in an eternal mind?
Assuming it for the sake of argument... no, I wouldn't. What, exactly, do abstract objects in an eternal mind, look like?

No theistic argument sets out to prove the existence of God, fully formed and with all his attributes (not any good theistic argument, anyway). I maintain that my syllogism proves the existence of a necessarily-existent, non-physical being, and that my premise 1 is very plausible due to conceptual analysis of concrete natural objects, as well as that of incoherent (impossible?) objects such as quadrilateral triangles, as per the foregoing.
But, where does this Divine Intellect come from? It appears apropos of nothing in your OP:

"Perhaps we might say that these are objects within the Divine Intellect, or perhaps they are just snapshots, as it were, of the Divine Intellect itself, as examined piecemeal by our own discursive, propositional, finite intellects. So while not proven in the strict sense, item 2 seems very plausible.

Item 3, however, is where things get a bit sticky. While it does seem that what we have here are either necessarily existent mental objects within the Divine Intellect or simply finite perspectives on the Divine Intellect itself, and while it is reasonably clear these objects are
enfleshed, as it were, in physical substance, it is not quite so clear on the above argument that an act or acts of divine volition are what make up the difference."

You start talking about "the Divine Intellect" as if it's something we all agree on - just what is it?
 
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Are you sure, though? What of, for instance, a self-creating physicality? What if there is one physical object, special among all physical objects, in that its existence causes the existence of all the others? It's the spark that triggers all the other sparks - ultimately the same as all the rest, and only special in that it came first. What then?

For someone who is a physicist, you sure are coming up with some off the wall ideas and purely specualtive, imaginitive concepts!

A self-creating physicality????

I think this little piece here that you have typed is indicative not only of your attempt, but the attempts of all other godless men and women, to go to such extreme and irrational lengths to deny the existence of God that it makes you look desperate!

You would rather posit a self-creating physicality which is at best a contradictory idea, than to say that universe owes it's existence to something supernatural.

1. What is this self-creating physicality?

2. How does it exist prior to the universe in order to create it, if all that is physcially material comes into being at the point of creation?

3. Where does this "spark" come from?

4. Why did it "spark"?

5. Is this physicality still self-creating?

6. This self-creating physicality must not only be explanatorily prior to itself, but chronologically prior to itself, in order to create itself, which is manifestly contradtictory as well as incoherent.

And yet it is maintained we are the one's exercising blind faith!!!!
:doh:
 
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Gadarene

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For someone who is a physicist, you sure are coming up with some off the wall ideas and purely specualtive, imaginitive concepts!

A self-creating physicality????

I think this little piece here that you have typed is indicative not only of your attempt, but the attempts of all other godless men and women, to go to such extreme and irrational lengths to deny the existence of God that it makes you look desperate!

You would rather posit a self-creating physicality which is at best a contradictory idea, than to say that universe owes it's existence to something supernatural.

1. What is this self-creating physicality?

2. How does it exist prior to the universe in order to create it, if all that is physcially material comes into being at the point of creation?

3. Where does this "spark" come from?

4. Why did it "spark"?

5. Is this physicality still self-creating?

6. This self-creating physicality must not only be explanatorily prior to itself, but chronologically prior to itself, in order to create itself, which is manifestly contradtictory as well as incoherent.

And yet it is maintained we are the one's exercising blind faith!!!!
:doh:

Said the non-physicist.

Well spotted. It is all speculative. Gods, self-creating realities. Hence the argument is inconclusive.

The only difference is, we aren't claiming our speculations are definitely true.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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For someone who is a physicist, you sure are coming up with some off the wall ideas and purely specualtive, imaginitive concepts!
It's what we do best.

A self-creating physicality????

I think this little piece here that you have typed is indicative not only of your attempt, but the attempts of all other godless men and women, to go to such extreme and irrational lengths to deny the existence of God that it makes you look desperate!

You would rather posit a self-creating physicality which is at best a contradictory idea, than to say that universe owes it's existence to something supernatural.
No. Congratulations on missing the point.
 
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Crandaddy

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But wouldn't these two possibilities tear down or at least seriously affect modal logic no matter what? I mean, instead of just affecting naturalism.

The first of those two options looks like it would entail a denial of axiom 5. If this is correct, then yes, it would seem to be a pretty risky move for the naturalist to take.


As for the second, say what you will about Russell, but the man knew logic--much better than I do, I'm sure. So it seems very unlikely that he would be making a logical blunder. It seems to me that the problem with the second option lies with the assumption of what language can describe. Russell seems quite content to say that words like “necessary” and “contingent” (which basically means “possibly but not necessarily”) describe propositions, but he denies their applicability to beings. The idea here seems to be (from what I can gather) that when we say regarding some being B that “possibly, it is the case that B,” what we're really saying is something like, “it is possibly the case that the proposition that 'it is the case that B' is true.”


But then I would ask, what might it be for the proposition that “it is the case that B” to be true if not for the fact of the being B? In response to this it might be said that the proposition with the modal affixed to it can't be talking about the same thing as the proposition sans the modal, since the bare fact of B is either there or not there, but not possibly there. But this line of argumentation won't work because we can say the same thing of the proposition that “the proposition that 'it is the case that B' is true.” The fact of this proposition's being true is either there or not, but it's not possibly there. And this leads to an infinite regress. The way out, I say, is to say that, rather than talking about concrete beings, modal expressions like these are talking about the natures of beings. Thus rendered, “possibly, it is the case that B” translates to something like “it is of the nature of B to be contractible to concrete particulars.”

We can debate semantics till the cows come home, but ultimately vocabulary doesn't stop quantum fluctuations from constituting a very real cadidate. Ultimately, the flaw is in premise (6) - "For any truthmaker t, if t is a truthmaker for a modally necessary proposition, then t is a modally necessary being."

The quantum wibble may well be necessary, but I see no reason why it must still be occurring.

Well, I would just say that we're using "necessary" in different senses, mine being much stronger than yours, but of course that's a semantics issue.

Yes :) "1 + 1 = 2" regardless of mental context. If the universe couldn't not exist, then that would be true regardless of whether humans exist to contemplate that fact.
But "1 + 1 = 2" is a proposition. Propositions occur in minds. They are essentially mental entities. How could it possibly be the case that the proposition that "1 + 1 = 2" would exist if there were no minds around to entertain it? Would it just be floating about somewhere out in space? To my mind, that makes no sense at all.

And if you grant that it would need a truthmaker in order to be true (which you seem to do), then what would make it true? Would it be another proposition? Would that proposition have to be true as well? Now it seems you're off on an infinite regress.

Are you sure, though? What of, for instance, a self-creating physicality?
Self-creating, as in causing the existence of itself? I doubt very much that this is even coherent. For there to be any sufficient cause of any effect it is necessary for the causally sufficient conditions to exist prior to (ontologically but not necessarily temporally) and distinct from the effect.

What if there is one physical object, special among all physical objects, in that its existence causes the existence of all the others? It's the spark that triggers all the other sparks - ultimately the same as all the rest, and only special in that it came first. What then?
I don't have any problem with this. But is denial of its existence incoherent? If I say that "this spark does not and never did exist," am I saying something that is conceivably true, or am I asserting an impossibility, like a square circle?

Do I have to? ;) After all, the onus is on you to prove no such object exists. Argumentum ad ignorantiam is a logical fallacy.
Had I claimed to have proven that it is coherent to deny the existence of every possibly concretely existing object in the natural world, then the argumentum ad ignorantium charge would be valid. But I haven't, so it's not.

And yes, since as far as I can see, all the evidence is on my side, you do have to. Show me one counterexample, and I'll abandon my claim.

I don't see why not. Ultimately, the absence of any thing may well be the 'cause' - without any thing in existence, there's nothing to stop X from happening. Thus, X happens. X is a singularity, and thus we have the Big Bang. How you want to classify that in your vocabulary is up to you.
If absences of things can be causes, then any figment that your imagination can cook up might suddenly become a cause of whatever it is you fancy. It's not that the absence of something can be the cause of X, but rather that there does not exist anything to cause it to be the case that not-X.

The laws govern what objects do, not necessarily whether such objects exist.
They govern what individual objects do, but what if all of the relevant individual objects were to disappear? What would the law that governs them be then?

Indeed, you haven't even proven that we can't imagine it.
Again, I never claimed to have proven it, but I'll try to very briefly explain why I think we can't imagine it:

First off, I should ask, what are the essential characteristics of concretely existing objects in the natural order? In other words, what are those characteristics without which these objects could not be? Sets of essential characteristics might not be exactly the same for every object, but I would say that at least one of these characteristics would be essential to all of them: spatial extension, temporal extension, spatial relations to other objects, or temporal relations to other temporal frames.

The important thing to see here is that in order to form a coherent (positive) concept of these objects, we must map them within the logical space of our minds. To form a positive concept of some object O, we must say that O is e.g. three centimeters long, or that O exists for e.g. three seconds, or that O is e.g. three meters removed from person P, or that O occurs e.g. three hours after the sun rises. But for every single one of these characteristics, whether applied to O or to any other object (I say), it is possible to coherently negate its mapping in our minds. We might replace it with some other mapping or with no mapping at all, but the specific mapping of O (or of any other object) does not compel us to say that it is not possibly the case that it might be other than it is.

In order to assert the existence of particular individual objects, therefore, it is not sufficient to merely introduce the specific mental mapping to the rational mind. I can't merely describe some object's being three centimeters long, or lasting for three seconds, or whatever and reasonably expect you to believe that it exists. I have to attach particular individual existence to it; I have to assert that there exists some particular individual object according to such and such a mapping.

Thus, in order to convince me that some concrete natural object cannot possibly not exist (in the strict sense that I mean), you will have to introduce me to a concept of such an object that logically compels me to accept the existence of said object simply from abstract consideration of said concept.

You will have to perform an ontological proof of said object, basically.

What, exactly, do abstract objects in an eternal mind, look like?
When we form concepts of concrete objects, I would say that what's happening is our our rational intellects, or minds, are apprehending the formal causes (in Aristotle's sense) of these objects. These formal causes, while being necessary for there to be concrete particulars, are not dependent upon concrete particularity in order to have a sort of less-than-concrete existence anterior to their contracting to concrete particulars. Thus, they serve as something like cookie-cutter templates for what objects are or might be concretely realized.

In this way, as I hope you are now able to see, these formal causes are not unrelated to our abstract rational mappings of concrete objects. They serve as the formal principles anterior to their contraction to concrete particulars, much like our abstract conceptions (which are themselves the result of formal causes contracting to our intellects) serve as templates for the volitional activities we undertake.

You start talking about "the Divine Intellect" as if it's something we all agree on - just what is it?
Metaphysics is the study of first principles, or of the foundations of reality. That ultimate first principle upon which everything else whatsoever is founded we theists call by the name of God. We assert, moreover, that all of reality is fundamentally and irreducibly intelligible, that it does--necessarily and by its very essence--consist in intelligibility, regardless of whether or not there are any human or human-like minds around to contemplate it. Therefore, we call the Divine Intellect that ultimate principle wherefrom this intelligibility derives.
 
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quatona

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So, are you suggesting that when we say that "possibly, [something or other] is the case" we're talking about our ability to conceive of it being the case? If so, then I agree with you, but I think in some cases we mean something a bit stronger than that.
Yes, it can refer to assertions of various strengths (depending on the context), but my point is: It is never a statement about the object (or the "world outside" but a statement about our concepts and the way we conceptualize.

Take the quadrilateral triangle, for instance. It seems to me that when we say that it is not possible for there to be quadrilateral triangles, we're not simply saying that we can't imagine there being quadrilateral triangles. Rather, we're making the stronger claim that the properties of being quadrilateral and being triangular cannot coexist at the same time and in the same sense in the same individual object.
Call me paranoid, but what I am most concerned with at this point is:
We need to take care that we are (and remain) clear what exactly we are talking about, and on which level we are talking.
E.g., while I basically agree with you here, I am not happy with the wording "properties [...](co)exist". Triangles aren´t objects, quadriliterality isn´t an object, properties aren´t objects. All of them are abstract concepts. Thus, when we make statements like the above, we need to keep in mind that we are talking about and remain fully within our own abstractions.
Now, it may be useful - for purposes of brevity or whatever - to say "a concept exists", yet: we must not forget that we are not talking about "the world outside", and that "existing" is used in a different meaning than when talking about "the world outside".

So you see, we're talking about properties as they exist (in whatever sort of existence they might have) independently both of particular individual objects and of our minds. For even if all of us humans went extinct, it would still be the case that quadrilateral triangles can't exist.
Again, for clarification: Even a trilateral triangle doesn´t "exist", anyway. A triangle isn´t an object, it´s an abstraction.
Thus, in a world without humans who make such abstractions, there wouldn´t be any such abstractions.

I do understand how those extra words might look like excessively verbose, perhaps even meaningless, word salad, but they do add content to the expression.

Consider the statement, "it's raining in Mawsynram." I've selected this Indian village because supposedly it holds the Guinness record for being the rainiest place on earth. Now, I don't know for a fact that it's raining in Mawsynram, but for all I know it's probably raining there. So, let's just say that the statement is true.

But right here we can see that there are two alternative ways to assert the same fact of it's raining in Mawsynram: We could simply say that "it's raining in Mawsynram," or we could say that "it's true that it's raining in Mawsynram." Both of these statements assert the fact of it's raining in Mawsynram, but they don't do so in the same way. If we let R stand for "it's raining in Mawsynram," the logical structure of the first statement is simply "R," but that of the second is "it's true that R." Notice that in the second statement we can separate out two distinct statements, namely "R" and "it's true that [fill in the blank]."
Completely with you, I think.
In the latter case we are making a statement about a statement. This is a different level of statement, and we need to make sure the two levels aren´t confused or conflated.
(On a sidenote: We could add further levels, in that we say "It´s true that the statement "R is true" is true.". The further away we get from a statement of fact ("R") the more we talk about ourselves, our concepts, our abstractions, and the deeper we get into meta-concepts.)

So what's the difference? Well, when we assert simply "R," we're simply asserting the content of the fact, so we're talking about facts and not statements. But when we assert that "it's true that R," we're not simply talking about facts anymore; rather we're talking about statements. We're asserting that the statement R has the property of being true, that it asserts the actual fact of it's raining in Mawsynram. So, while both statements ultimately assert the same fact, they go about it in different ways.
Yes.

Words like possibly and necessarily, on the other hand, are not independent statements. If I just say "possibly" or "necessarily," I'm not expressing anything that has the logical structure of a complete statement. Rather, what these words (which are called modals) do is modify the statement. The important thing to see here is that the addition of a modal to a statement modifies the statement so that it no longer means quite the same thing as the bare assertion of the statement itself.
Yes, sure. We are no more making statements about objects, we are making statements about the way we conceptualize.
However, when we say e.g. "X exists possibly/necessarily" we make it sound like we are making a statement about X or about its existence while, in fact, the possibility or necessity is not a property of the object or its existence but a property created by our thinking, our logic, our conceptualization.

So, for instance, "Bradford pear trees don't exist" is false. However, it might be true that "possibly, Bradford pear trees don't exist," depending on what we mean by the statement.
While I completely agree with you that these statements are statements of a different level (in that the latter is a statement not about the world but about our thinking structures and what they allow and don´t allow for) I am still hesitant to make the statement "it´s true" about a statement that is inconclusive. What it seems to say is: "It is true that our modal thinking doesn´t allow for a conclusive statement ("our thinking necessitates them to exists" or "our thinking excludes them from existing").

I mean a positive theory of why statements such as "possibly, it's the case that..." or "necessarily, it's the case that..." are true. Does anything make them true? That's what I'm asking.
Well, I still don´t see "impossibly/necessarily" and "possibly" being in the same ballpark.
The truthmaker for "this assumption is necessary for us to make" would be the fact that the assumption to the contrary would render our thinking structure (basically: our axioms, our definitions and/or logic) dysfunctional. The same goes for "this assumption is impossible for us to make".
Point: We are making statements about our concepts and abstractions, not about the world, and for obvious reasons the "truthmakers" for such statements are somewhat self-referential.

As far as "it´s possible..." is concerned: This is merely stating that neither the assumption nor the assumption to the contrary would threaten our thinking structures. It´s inconclusive, in that it´s what´s left when we can´t conclusively exclude either R or -R because neither is threatening our thinking structures.

What I'm suggesting is that the world does not simply consist of concrete, substantial objects, so that if we were to take all of them away there would be absolutely nothing left. I'm saying that even if all of those things were completely annihilated in their concrete substantiality (absolutely no trace of them left, whatsoever), then it still would not be the case that there is just simply, absolutely nothing at all.
Thanks for the clarification!
Now, would that be your premise or your conclusion?
Personally I don´t see how it is the latter since I haven´t understood how you manage to argue or demonstrate how our concepts and abstractions
- exist independently of our minds and
- exist in the absence of a physical world.
So what would e.g. "triangularity" be a property of if there were no physical world and no beings conceptualizing and abstracting?

The reason is that because even in a world completely devoid of any substantial objects, it would still have to be the case in that world that possibly there are substantial objects. There are no galaxies, stars, planets, plants, animals, or so on in that world, but still it is possible (in a broadly logical, rationally coherent sense) that these things might exist in that world.
As both of us seem to have agreed upon above (correct me if I am wrong), as soon as we get to meta-statements (statements about statements) we enter the realm of self-introspection rather than description of "the world". We are talking about "necessary assumptions", "impossible assumptions" (and the inconclusive "possible assumptions), and when we do that we are referring to our thinking structures.
In order for to the statement "those things might exist" there would at least a mind have to exist to make that statement and to apply its thinking structures.

But if this is true, then why is it true? Well, when we assert true statements about concrete substantial facts, such as that "there's a Bradford pear in my backyard," these statements have certain facts that make them true, so that in the absence of those facts our statements would not be true. Thus, were there not the fact of the Bradford pear growing in my backyard, the statement "there's a Bradford pear in my backyard" would be false.

Now, I say that when we make modal claims like "possibly, Bradford pear trees don't exist" in an absolute, broadly logical sense, these claims, if they are to be true, need to have truthmakers. However, these truthmakers can't be concrete substantial facts, since it might (again, in an absolute, broadly logical sense) be the case that none of them exist. Nor can it be human (or human-like) minds, since none of those might exist either.
I can´t seem to follow you here. When you talk about statements, statements about statements, thinking, logic, abstractions etc. you are factually presupposing a mind to produce them. It seems to me that the assumption that there might be no mind to make them (and that they exist somewhere out there as independent entities) is violating the premise.
No, we're talking about pure possibilities, themselves, independent of any concrete substantial facts or minds, which in their concrete substantiality might not exist.
It strikes me as odd that you start by carefully differenciating between the world, statements about the world, and statements about statements about the world, and later introduce the idea that neither the world nor a mind making statements may exist.

Therefore, when I say that "possibly, Bradford pear trees don't exist," I'm examining in abstraction the world of pure possibilities and declaring of the essential content of what I conceptualize as a Bradford pear tree that it might not be the case that it is concretely realized in actual, physical substance (that it actually exists, in other words).
Yes: my thinking structure neither allows me to conclusively exclude either of the assumptions: "they exist" or "they don´t exist".

What I think you're trying to say here is that the names we attach to our concepts in order to signify them don't determine the content of the concepts, themselves. The names that we give our concepts are merely arbitrarily assigned tags that we use in order to signify them, in other words. If this is what you mean, then I agree.
Let me clarify: While I think that this is an important thing to keep in mind it was not what I was trying to say.
I was trying to say that - despite our semantics which suggest that "possible" is the actual concept and "impossible" is its negation - "impossibly" and "necessary" are the actual concepts (and antagonists) of our meta-epistemological method, and "possibly" is the term for the inconclusive left-overs.

Well, I agree that in order to isolate a conceptual item in thought it is necessary to have a concept of the negation, or removal, of that concept for contrast. Applying this to our concepts of possible/impossible, I would say that it is necessary to have a coherent concept of some state of affairs. By contrast, whatever is not coherently conceivable is impossible.
It seems to me that this doesn´t do justice to our methodology. Our meta-epistemological methodology is exclusive. "It´s possible that Bradford trees exist" or "It´s possible that Bradford trees don´t exist" (both of which are saying the same, btw.) are concessions of "failure" in that respect.

Now, to be sure, there are a lot of things that I don't understand, and I don't doubt that a good many of them I can't understand. But still, I seem to be within my rights to call some things absolutely impossible in a sense stronger than simply my inability to understand how it could be so. That the law of non-contradiction, that something can both be and not be at the same time and in the same sense, might be false, for example. Some things we just can't relinquish on pain of undermining our basic rationality.
Yes, you are well within your rights to do so, you are well within your rights to work from axioms, you are well within your rights to apply the grammar of our thinking (aka "logic") consistently, you are well within your rights to make statements about statements - but: I don´t see how you can possibly take yourself and your mind and the fact that it´s you who conceptualizes out of the equation.
See: Above you are contrasting "I seem to be within my rights to call some things absolutely impossible in a sense stronger than simply my inability to understand how it could be so" (IOW you are attempting to conclude an "impossibility" independent of ourselves and our rationality), and in the end you say "Some things we just can't relinquish on pain of undermining our basic rationality." (IOW you are re-introducing the very standard that you denied above).
 
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quatona

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Okay, then. Replace it with "concept of the negation of a concept." We can't conceive of the negation of a concept until we first grasp the positive content of the concept. That's really closer to what I mean. Does it help?
Yes, in that it helps me understand what you mean.
I am, however, still maintaining that "impossible" and "necessary" are the antagonistic concepts and that "possible" is the negation of these concepts.

So, what you're saying (I think) is that, on your understanding, when we say that "possibly, it is the case that [whatever]," what that amounts to is something like "as far as I know, it might or might not be the case that [whatever]."

If this is what you mean, then I would say that, yes, there is a sense in which a possibility statement might express something like that, but not all possibility statements express something like that. I think there's also a sense in which a possibility statement might express the absolute possibility of an abstractly conceived nature's being an actually existing concrete object.
Again, I am not sure whether those words that confuse me here are essential to your statement (in which case I would like to ask for an explanation) or by and large redundant:
- What, in your terminology is the difference between a "possibility" (as I would call it) and an "absolute possibility"?
- What, in your terminology is the difference between an "abstract concept" (as I would call it) and an "abstractly conceived nature´s being"?

I am, btw, again confused by the fact that first you clarify and insist that modal logic makes statements about statements (and I certainly would agree), but here you seem to forget about all that and treat them as though they were possibly statements about the world out there.

Thus rendered, the statement that "possibly, there are triangles" is not expressing that "for all I know, there might or might not be triangular objects in the world," but rather something more like "it is the nature of the property of triangularity that it can be exemplified in physical objects."
As far as I can tell this is having it backwards. "Triangular" is an abstraction (meaning that we reduce an object to a certain property, and "abstract" it from the object). It then becomes a concept independent of the actual object. We do this for the purpose of being able to distinguish between actual objects, based on these very abstractions.
 
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Crandaddy

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E.g., while I basically agree with you here, I am not happy with the wording "properties [...](co)exist". Triangles aren´t objects, quadriliterality isn´t an object, properties aren´t objects. All of them are abstract concepts. Thus, when we make statements like the above, we need to keep in mind that we are talking about and remain fully within our own abstractions.
Now, it may be useful - for purposes of brevity or whatever - to say "a concept exists", yet: we must not forget that we are not talking about "the world outside", and that "existing" is used in a different meaning than when talking about "the world outside".

But if we're not saying anything at all about the outside world, then how do you think it is that we can know anything about it or refer to it? If the outside world doesn't have properties like spatial extension, relations, etc. that we can conceptualize in abstraction, then it seems we're trapped within the confines of our own minds. Bear in mind that I'm not saying that properties are concrete objects in their own right, but neither does their existence entirely consist in our subjective abstractions.

Again, for clarification: Even a trilateral triangle doesn´t "exist", anyway. A triangle isn´t an object, it´s an abstraction.
Thus, in a world without humans who make such abstractions, there wouldn´t be any such abstractions.
While I believe you are correct that there wouldn't be any abstractions, I don't think that, e.g., triangularity would completely cease to exist, outright. We know that in this world, where there are humans, there are objects that exhibit spatial extension which we are able to conceptualize and, thus, refer to linguistically, and I see no reason why we should say that triangularity isn't or might not be exemplified in some object. Now, in a world without human or human-like minds (just in case there might be ETs), there wouldn't be any triangularity abstractions, but I see no reason to say that what we abstractly conceptualize as triangularity might not inhere to some object, so that were some human-like mind to come along, it might abstractly cognize it according to the conceptual content of triangularity.

Yes, sure. We are no more making statements about objects, we are making statements about the way we conceptualize.
However, when we say e.g. "X exists possibly/necessarily" we make it sound like we are making a statement about X or about its existence while, in fact, the possibility or necessity is not a property of the object or its existence but a property created by our thinking, our logic, our conceptualization.
The modals “possibly” and “necessarily” do not ascribe properties to concrete objects; this is true. But neither do they (always) describe our thought processes. The way I see it, concrete objects that exist out in the world have ontological parts. These are not parts like the components of, e.g., a computer, which can be separated out into individual concrete objects. Rather, they are more like aspects of singular concrete individuals which we are able to cognize in different ways. Relevant to the present discussion are the ontological parts of quiddity and haecceity. Quiddity is a term that refers to the whatness aspect of the object. When we define a term, we are describing its quiddity. Haecceity, on the other hand, is the thatness aspect of the object. It is an ontological part that gives an object its individual particularity.


So, for example, if there were two triangular objects sitting in front of me, triangularity would be the communicable quiddity of both, since it would include the definition of what the objects are (insofar as they're triangular). By contrast, the haecceity of the triangle sitting to my right would be the incommunicable particularity of that individual triangular object, and the same would go for the one on my left.


I think that (sometimes, at least) when we say that possibly or necessarily something or other is the case, we're talking about quidditative principles abstracted from their concrete, particular existences and considered by themselves as potentially being concretely realized in some way or other. But, I would say, we can't so talk about them (i.e. as potentially being concretely realized in this or that way) unless they have a sort of less-than-concrete existence in themselves. So, while individual concrete objects cannot exist without both quiddities and haecceities, their quiddities, nevertheless, have a sort of existence in themselves, anterior to their contraction to concrete particulars, and these are what we're talking about when we make (some) modal claims.

Well, I still don´t see "impossibly/necessarily" and "possibly" being in the same ballpark.
The truthmaker for "this assumption is necessary for us to make" would be the fact that the assumption to the contrary would render our thinking structure (basically: our axioms, our definitions and/or logic) dysfunctional. The same goes for "this assumption is impossible for us to make".
Point: We are making statements about our concepts and abstractions, not about the world, and for obvious reasons the "truthmakers" for such statements are somewhat self-referential.
But this would make all possible worlds only those worlds in which human-like minds exist. Consequently, any counterfactual statement of the form “If there were no human-like minds, then...” would describe an impossible world. It would be like saying “if there were square circles, then...” or “if the law of non-contradiction were false, then...” But surely it makes sense to talk of there not being any human-like minds. After all, in the early part of our universe's history there were no human-like minds, and physicists seem to have no difficulty talking about what the universe was like back then. Nor do they seem to have any great difficulty speculating about what the universe will be like in the far off distant future; whether there will be any human-like minds in that future seems irrelevant.


The point is that human-like minds have every appearance of being contingent. They may either exist or not. There seems to be no difficulty describing worlds (or parts of worlds, like the past or future) where they do (or might) not exist.

As far as "it´s possible..." is concerned: This is merely stating that neither the assumption nor the assumption to the contrary would threaten our thinking structures. It´s inconclusive, in that it´s what´s left when we can´t conclusively exclude either R or -R because neither is threatening our thinking structures.
But when I say that, e.g., “it's possible for a book on the floor to sit on my desk” I seem to be saying something stronger than simply that “it doesn't threaten my thinking structures to imagine such a book sitting on my desk.” I mean something more like, “it is not opposed to the nature of such a book to sit upon my desk.” To be sure, it does not threaten our thinking structures either to imagine the book sitting on my desk or not, but this is not primarily what we're talking about. I would say that it is only subsequently and upon introspective analysis of our own relations to modal statements that we come to realize their bearing upon our thinking structures.

Thanks for the clarification!
Now, would that be your premise or your conclusion?
Personally I don´t see how it is the latter since I haven´t understood how you manage to argue or demonstrate how our concepts and abstractions
- exist independently of our minds and
- exist in the absence of a physical world.
I believe the passage you're quoting is simply an attempt to summarize my syllogism in my original post. There I lay out all of my premises, inferences, and my conclusion point-by-point.

So what would e.g. "triangularity" be a property of if there were no physical world and no beings conceptualizing and abstracting?
It wouldn't be a property of anything, since in order for it to be a property of something it would have to inhere in some particular individual object. Now, as for what it would be, I'm not sure that I could offer a satisfying answer. In fact, I'm still trying to figure out just what such a thing would be, myself. (This is why I intentionally left open whether the truthmaker(s) of our modal claims is (are) one or many. I'm inclined to say that there is only one such truthmaker and that we discursively analyze it piece-by-piece according to different modal claims, but I'm not entirely sure about this.) Still, however, I think it would be something. That is, I think it would have some sort of less-than-concrete existence even if there were no concrete particulars in which it would (or could) inhere.

As both of us seem to have agreed upon above (correct me if I am wrong), as soon as we get to meta-statements (statements about statements) we enter the realm of self-introspection rather than description of "the world". We are talking about "necessary assumptions", "impossible assumptions" (and the inconclusive "possible assumptions), and when we do that we are referring to our thinking structures.
No, I would say that we're still talking about facts in the world. More specifically, when we make such meta-statements, we're talking about the facts of proposition tokens (particular utterances, basically); whether these come from ourselves or from someone else doesn't matter.

In order for to the statement "those things might exist" there would at least a mind have to exist to make that statement and to apply its thinking structures.
Correct, a mind would have to exist for the statement to exist, and it would have to think, as you say.

I can´t seem to follow you here. When you talk about statements, statements about statements, thinking, logic, abstractions etc. you are factually presupposing a mind to produce them. It seems to me that the assumption that there might be no mind to make them (and that they exist somewhere out there as independent entities) is violating the premise.
For there to be any of the things you list, there have to be minds to make/use/entertain them. However, these things must also have conceptual content to work with, and this content can't be entirely exhausted by our own subjective conceptions if it is to succeed in describing the world at all.

It strikes me as odd that you start by carefully differenciating between the world, statements about the world, and statements about statements about the world, and later introduce the idea that neither the world nor a mind making statements may exist.
So we're clear, I'm saying that the world of particular, individual, concrete objects might not exist (not the entire world, outright), and I include therein minds of the sort you and I have.

Yes: my thinking structure neither allows me to conclusively exclude either of the assumptions: "they exist" or "they don´t exist".
But I think your ability to do this derives from your abstract analysis of the relevant conceptual content. You examine your conceptual content of “Bradford pear tree” in abstraction and determine that it may or may not exist in some particular individual. It's not that you can conceive of the world being either way (i.e. with or without Bradford pear trees) and project this onto the world, but rather that the world actually can be either way and you're able to see it.

I was trying to say that - despite our semantics which suggest that "possible" is the actual concept and "impossible" is its negation - "impossibly" and "necessary" are the actual concepts (and antagonists) of our meta-epistemological method, and "possibly" is the term for the inconclusive left-overs.
Well, it seems to me that we can reconstruct the concepts “impossible” and “necessary” out of no other positive content than “possible.” Thus, “impossible” can be reconstructed as “not-possible” and “necessary” can be reconstructed as “not-possibly-not.” Assuming that these reconstructions are semantically equivalent to what they presume to reconstruct and that no positive content can come exclusively from negations, it would seem that “possible” is the fundamental (or at least more fundamental) concept.

It seems to me that this doesn´t do justice to our methodology. Our meta-epistemological methodology is exclusive. "It´s possible that Bradford trees exist" or "It´s possible that Bradford trees don´t exist" (both of which are saying the same, btw.) are concessions of "failure" in that respect.
I think what you're saying here (correct me if I'm wrong) is that “necessary” and “impossible” are our opposite meta-epistemological extremes, and that “possibly” and “possibly-not” are just different (but semantically equivalent) ways of describing what occupies the middle ground.


Assuming (as I have not been until now) that these words describe our meta-epistemological methodology, I would still say that “possible” is the fundamental concept and that it means, basically, “conceivable.” What is “possibly-not” the case is conceivable but conceivably replaceable by some other conception. What is “necessary” is conceivable but not conceivably replaceable. And finally, what is “impossible” is not coherently conceivable at all. So, that is “necessary” which is conceivable, but whose replacement amounts to incoherent nonsense (i.e. is impossible).
 
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Crandaddy

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Above you are contrasting "I seem to be within my rights to call some things absolutely impossible in a sense stronger than simply my inability to understand how it could be so" (IOW you are attempting to conclude an "impossibility" independent of ourselves and our rationality), and in the end you say "Some things we just can't relinquish on pain of undermining our basic rationality." (IOW you are re-introducing the very standard that you denied above).
Your concern here seems to be that I'm overreaching my conceptual (and hence linguistic) capabilities and attempting to say what can't be said, as Wittgenstein might put it. I maintain that I'm not. I'm not suggesting that I can refer to things that outstrip my cognitive limits. Rather, I'm suggesting that my modal claims can succeed in referring to the world beyond my mind--not to the world of concrete objects, but to the world of quiddities, of natures (these are roughly equivalent as I use them here) as they exist independently of concrete particulars.


Of course, it's also true that these modal concepts have correlates within our meta-epistemological framework. Thus, possibilities out in the world correspond to conceivabilities within our minds, etc., as per the foregoing. What this indicates, I say, is that the same normativity that prescribes how our thought processes ought to work also prescribes how the world has to be. The world has, at its metaphysical foundation, a logos, a fundamental intelligibility not unrelated to our contingent minds. So, while our rationality may or may not be around, the world itself is metaphysically dependent upon something analogous to our rationality for its existence--indeed, for its possible existence. Our minds are a reflection of this more fundamental meta-rationality, if you will.

- What, in your terminology is the difference between a "possibility" (as I would call it) and an "absolute possibility"?
It looks to me like you're using “possibility” in an epistemological context, so it would mean roughly the same thing as “conceivability,” as I would call it. An “absolute possibility” in my jargon would be possibility out in the world, which we discover by way of analyzing what is conceivable (in abstraction). We apply our abstract conceptions to the world and call them possible, but this is not mere projection. The possibilities were there before we came along, and they'll be there after (in fact, I would say they're eternal in the sense that they don't in themselves even exist in time at all). We know absolute possibilities and they shape our (properly-functioning) cognitive faculties because our minds are made to reflect the eternal logos that shapes reality.

- What, in your terminology is the difference between an "abstract concept" (as I would call it) and an "abstractly conceived nature´s being"?
Abstract concepts only exist in our minds. If we go extinct, then our abstract concepts do as well. But our abstract concepts have contents. They are concepts of things. And by “things” I mean properties of objects, whether actual or possible, such as their structures that we can map within the logical space of our minds (e.g. triangularity, sphericality). So, the abstract concept (in its relevance to the present discussion) is our own mental apprehension of the natures (or quiddities) of actual or possible concrete objects.

As far as I can tell this is having it backwards. "Triangular" is an abstraction (meaning that we reduce an object to a certain property, and "abstract" it from the object). It then becomes a concept independent of the actual object. We do this for the purpose of being able to distinguish between actual objects, based on these very abstractions.
Okay, but I don't see how you can say that we can know anything about an object itself unless some part of our concept enjoys commonality with some part of the object itself. Maybe we could distinguish one object from another on your view, but surely we can do more than just that!
 
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quatona

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Crandaddy,

again thanks for your exhaustive elaborations! I find the way you present your ideas highly enjoyable, thought provoking and inspiring!

However, I don´t know how to proceed. I don´t share your basic preassumptions, and since you don´t even seem to pretend to defend that they are necessary (which is not meant as criticism but rather as acknowledgment of your intellectual honesty), and since I am unable to prove them impossible, all that´s left for me to say is: Your philosophy appears to be internally consistent.

Seeing that my school of thought is, for great parts, represented in "Radical Constructivism" (just to give you a rough idea where I´m coming from), our most basic views could hardly be further apart from each other.

Thus, while - for the time being - I have no idea how to continue the discussion without ending up in repeated affirmations of our premises (yet, would surely be open for any suggestions), I will at least respond to your last paragraph which contains some sort of question:
Okay, but I don't see how you can say that we can know anything about an object itself unless some part of our concept enjoys commonality with some part of the object itself. Maybe we could distinguish one object from another on your view, but surely we can do more than just that!
I don´t even believe there are distinct objects (beyond our concepts), in the first place. The property "object" itself is already a performance of our minds, and not a property existing out there. Thus, an abstraction is sort of self-referential, in that it is basically the recognition of our criteria why we have declared something a distinct "object", in the first place. Distinction, abstraction, pattern recognition are a permanent feedback-loop, if you will.

While I agree with you that these concepts and criteria are not arbitrarily chosen, I disagree that they are owed to something outside ourselves. We create the world as we need it, we create the categories as they are useful to us, and the options in doing so are enabled and confined solely by our intellectual capacities and thinking structures.

I guess this helps explaining my problems with "modal logic" in and of itself.
 
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Seeing that my school of thought is, for great parts, represented in "Radical Constructivism" (just to give you a rough idea where I´m coming from), our most basic views could hardly be further apart from each other.

Yes, it is difficult to see how our philosophies could be more different. My own is heavily influenced by Aristotelian Scholasticism, which places heavy emphasis on the outside world and presumes that our minds are able to penetrate deeply into its ontological constitution.

So, that being the case, I must say that I'm also at a loss for how we should proceed. Anyway, I, too, have very much enjoyed our discussion thus far, and if an idea presents itself, I'll be sure to post it!

And by the way, I've discovered that it was you who initially "repped" me, and I do greatly appreciate that! :)
 
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I am no modal logician but if nothingness is not a possible world then maybe the necessary being is the formal requirement that in each world the world set must have at least one element. But i supppse we are talking about a necessary element rather than there being at least one element necessarily cf modal fallacy?
 
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