Davian
fallible
- May 30, 2011
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If the cosmos is not infinite, why would its cause, if it needed one, be required to be infinite? Because you are working back from your conclusion that it was your "God"?No finite entity has the power to create a material entity from nothing. We find no instances, apart from the instance of creation of the universe, of material things beginning to exist without material causes.
Where did you establish that scientifically?For a material thing to come into being without a material cause requires an efficient cause of infinite power.
Only if one presupposes that there must be such a thing.In addition, several of the necessary properties of said cause indirectly argue that the cause must be infinite. Namely, the cause's timelessness, immateriality, and non-spatiality, all can be summed up under the qualitative superlative encompassing adjective "infinite".
So your use of a quantitative adjective was incorrect.When power is mentioned in this context, the primary connotation is ability, or potentiality regarding it's causal capacity. In other words, this cause must be at least powerful enough to be able to cause all of space-time and matter to come into existence literally out of nothing, from no prior antecedent materially condtioned state of affairs.
So it is special pleading, in the absence of those two arguments being demonstrably true.Since the first cause exists independently and transcendant beyond space-time and matter, it is not a natural/material entity and therefore is not subject to the second law. This is not special pleading for the simple fact that there are two arguments, namely the metaphysical principle that something cannot come into being from nothing uncaused, and two, the claim that the universe came into existence at some point in the finite past. These two arguments demand that they be best explained by the existence of a transcendant cause of the universe, which by definition, would be exempt from the laws of nature. Reasons are given in support of these two arguments.
Tell me, where did this 'first cause' get all of this energy? Can it make more?
Are you trying to sell me on the idea of a perpetual motion machine?
No, compared to what? Another universe? Which one? How many have you looked at? Where is this 'design' and 'precision' that you speak of?Compared to a finite entity.
Choice without change? That does not sound at all like a choice. And a slip there, from 'first cause' to 'creator'. And now 'he' has free will. How does that work, being timeless? That truck is still stuck in the mud.The personhood of the first cause is implied in several ways. One is that the origin of an effect with a beginning (the universe) must be a cause without a beginning (the first cause). The beginning of the universe was the effect of a first cause. By the nature the first cause, it cannot have a beginning of its existence or any prior cause. The cause exists changelessly without beginning, and a finite time ago it brought the universe into existence.
Now to answer your question Davian, the cause is in a true sense eternal and yet the effect that it produced is not eternal but began to exist a finite time ago. How is this possible? If the sufficient conditions for the effect are eternal, then why isnt the effect also eternal? How can a first event come to exist if the cause of that event exists changelessly and eternally? How can the cause exist without its effect?
Al Ghazali, the Muslim philosopher who propounded the Kalam during the Middle Ages reasoned that the only way to explain this sufficiently and rationally is to say that the cause of the universes beginning is a personal agent who freely chooses to create a universe in time.
Philosophers call this type of causation agent causation, and because the agent is free, he can initiate new effects by freely bringing about conditions that were not previously present.
From the above, it follows that the first cause could have, a finite time ago, freely brought the universe into being at a particular instance. In this way, the cause could exist changelessly and eternally but choose to create the world in time.
Note* - By choose one need not imply that the Creator changes his mind about the decision to create, but that he freely and eternally intends to create a world with a beginning.) By exercising his causal power, he therefore brings it about that a world with a beginning comes to exist. So the cause is eternal, but the effect is not. In this way, then, it is possible for the temporal universe to have come to exist from an eternal cause: through the free will of a personal Creator.
Try again?
It may not be proven, but it is certainly well substantiated. I submit to you this thread, for example.This is a strawman argument because it is built upon the unsubstantiated assumption that God is only a fabrication from the imagination of men, which simply cannot be proven.
All of your posts.
This:
Suffice it to say, no argument or belief of mine is empirically verifiable.
Anything by WLC.
The creation of apologetics, and what you are doing here, substantiate that the assumption is warranted, until there is evidence to the contrary.
I'm not buying any perpetual motion machines today.
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