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The apologia of the cosmos. Evidence of God

Danyc

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The Big Bang my friend, was not a change of state at all! There was nothing in existence to be changed into prior to the Big Bang.

The Big Bang is not the result of something changing from one form into something else. For all that is, came into existence simultaneously at the Big Bang.

The Law of Causality tells us that because the universe began to exist, then it has a cause.

The problem many people have in fully appreciating what this means is that they do not understand that before this point of creation, NO matter, NO time, NO space existed. There was nothing natural in existence prior to this point.

So to speak of something changing into something from something in existence or transforming from one form to another to try and refute the Law of Causality is not even logical.

The only way to disprove the Law of Causality is to show that something could come into existence uncaused, and this is not only impossible to prove, but it is irrational, illogical, and goes contrary to everything we know intuitively about reality.

The Law of Causality refers to things. Stuff that happens to things in space and time.
If at a point in the 'past' (I use this term colloquially, of course), there was nothing, it is obvious that the Law of Causality could not be applied.

Causes require things to exist.
 
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Eudaimonist

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Interestingly enough, common sense tells us that the Cause of the universe must be personal not impersonal.

"Common sense" fails us in a stunning way when it comes to understanding quantum mechanics. I think that we may need far more than "common sense" when dealing with these very uncommon issues.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Elioenai26

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Blind post here: If time came into existance with the Big Bang, then there is no "before that point". I see this mistake quite often, but if you are asserting that time began a finite time ago, then you cannot speak of things "before" that point. Then there is no point in time when the universe didn't exist. In this way the universe is both eternal and around 14-15 billion year old.

This of course makes it very hard to talk about causalities at the beginning of time. Causality as we understand it is always tied to time. How would you distinguish cause and effect out of time?

This is often espoused as a refutation of the cosmological argument but is faulty and ungrounded for several reasons:

1. You must provide a good argument with evidence that proves your assertion that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities.

In other words, you have the awesome burden of proof in proving that that causes and effects must always be related by a relation of temporal priority. But I will save you from the leg work, this cannot be proven.

2. Secondly, even if it were possible for you to provide a good argument that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities, there is nothing incoherent or contradictory with maintaining that the very moment God created the universe (time, space, and matter) was the exact same moment that time began! The cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e. all time, all space, and all matter) were simultaneously temporally related.

In fact, there is no other logical way that it could happen. An illustration may help to explain this simple premise.

A heavy ball, say, a bowling ball, is placed on a pillow or a cushion. The exact moment that the ball (cause) is placed on the cushion, a depression (effect) is made in the cushion. This happened simultaneously.

This conclusion is warranted by reason and logic. It would be illogical and irrational to say that somehow the ball actually did not cause the depression at the exact moment that it was placed on the cushion.

Therefore, we have every reason to believe that the Cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e time, space, and matter) are related temporally in that the Cause effected the effect simultaneously.


You also say that the universe is eternal, which we obviously know it can't be, and then on the other hand you say it is 15 billion years old!!!!

I think it shall suffice to say that your contradictory statement is ungrounded.
 
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Elioenai26

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"Common sense" fails us in a stunning way when it comes to understanding quantum mechanics. I think that we may need far more than "common sense" when dealing with these very uncommon issues.


eudaimonia,

Mark

The imaginitive metaphysical theory that quantum mechanics refutes the Causal Principle has already been shown to be at best, ungrounded and intentionally misleading. I supplied evidence of this in an earlier post.
 
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Elioenai26

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One more time. :doh:

No, the universe could be eternal, with the big bang being only the beginning of the current instantiation of our cosmos. Here, the cosmos is what is inside of the universe. And, this allows for uranium in what could be an eternal universe.

Im surprised Davian that you could seriously maintain that the universe is eternal!!!

I must say however, that you are a man of great faith if you maintain this! Who knew????

;)
 
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Elioenai26

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Well, that just makes your argument even more problematic. If time, space and matter all came into existence at the Big Bang, then the word "cause", which we use when we speak of the interaction of matter in time and space, really finds no application in the description of something that is without matter, timeless and spaceless. If you believe that time, space and matter all came into the existence at the Big Bang, then it wouldn't be a great leap to suggest that causality only became a useful concept from that moment on.

This is an important point to emphasise as I believe it undermines your entire argument. We observe causal relations between matter in space and time. You want to make an inferential leap to say that these relations can carry on existing without any matter to operate on, in an area that is spaceless (how is it even an area then?) and at a time that is timeless. You are taking the concept so far out of the context in which it is useful that it no longer describes anything at all. The concept of causality is ordinarily used to describe something happening, somewhere and in some time. You are saying that the concept can also describe nothing happening (immaterial), nowhere (spaceless) and in no time (timeless). In effect you are saying that this "uncaused cause", that you call God, is really nothing, nowhere and in no time. You have turned God into nothingness and bizarrely come to argue that nothing (the immaterial) can create everything (the material world in space-time).

The below is a response to Beechwell who argued the same thing as you have here. I shall refer you to it.

**This is often espoused as a refutation of the cosmological argument but is faulty and ungrounded for several reasons:

1. You must provide a good argument with evidence that proves your assertion that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities.

In other words, you have the awesome burden of proof in proving that that causes and effects must always be related by a relation of temporal priority. But I will save you from the leg work, this cannot be proven.

2. Secondly, even if it were possible for you to provide a good argument that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities, there is nothing incoherent or contradictory with maintaining that the very moment God created the universe (time, space, and matter) was the exact same moment that time began! The cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e. all time, all space, and all matter) were simultaneously temporally related.

In fact, there is no other logical way that it could happen. An illustration may help to explain this simple premise.

A heavy ball, say, a bowling ball, is placed on a pillow or a cushion. The exact moment that the ball (cause) is placed on the cushion, a depression (effect) is made in the cushion. This happened simultaneously.

This conclusion is warranted by reason and logic. It would be illogical and irrational to say that somehow the ball actually did not cause the depression at the exact moment that it was placed on the cushion.

Therefore, we have every reason to believe that the Cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e time, space, and matter) are related temporally in that the Cause effected the effect simultaneously.**



You articulated the principle as "causes in the past were like the causes that we observe today." Your argument, however, violates this principle because you are claiming that one cause in the past is radically unlike any of the causes we observe today -- it is supernatural, immaterial, nowhere in space, and timeless, but somehow it remains causally efficacious.

The Principle of Uniformity is used when seeking to understand an occurance that is not repeatable, i.e. a crime. Forensic scientists often utilize this principle when seeking to discover the perpetrator of a crime.

The Big Bang was a non-repatable phenomenon and we were not there when it happened, but we can infer with accuracy what it's cause must have been by knowing that things today do not come into existence uncaused. We can look at the effect which is the universe and make many well informed inferences as to what could have caused this occurance.

Therefore the Principle of Uniformity is one means in which we come to understand what this Causal entity must have been.


Not necessarily. If each part is a triangle, then the system as a whole need not be a triangle.
hex4.gif

I thank you for the picture, but I do not see how geometric shapes are pertinent to this discussion.

Then that is tantamount to saying that nothing caused everything. If something is not material, then what is it? It is nothing.

When you use the word "nothing" you are using it according to a naturalistic understanding of the word. You are saying that if something is immaterial, then it is nothing. However this is clearly false, for example:

1. The ideas that you had in your mind which caused you to type what you did in this post is not a material entity, but I dare say you would not maintain that your ideas were "no-thing". They are very much something, they are ideas!

2. Your mind is not a material entity, but I dare say you would not maintain that your mind is "no-thing", it is something!. It is your mind!

3. The Law of Gravity is not a material entity, it nontheless is a very real something: It is an undeniable, unbreakable law which, if you try to disprove by jumping off of a sky scraper, you will not end up breaking the Law of Gravity, but yourself, thereby proving the law really is something!

:idea:

So we see from the above that it is very logical, reasonable, and in fact necessary we understand that many things are not made of matter, but are nontheless real in the sense that they exist and are effectual.

Therefore, an immaterial being is not "no-thing" at all but is a very real something which is necessary to cause all matter to come into existence.
 
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Elioenai26

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Well, then please humour me with your reasoning that leads you to the conclusion that the "Law of Causation" (in your version as "everything that has a beginning must have a cause") is indispensible and undeniable. Actually, I haven´t even found this version in any scientific context - which is not surprising since science (being concerned with the stuff within the universe) doesn´t deal with "beginnings", in the first place. It deals with transformations of that which is. Thus, it would be highly surprising to find an axiom at the very core of science that is circled around events that have never been observed in the universe (and thus aren´t even subject to science), in the first place.


To answer this, I believe it shall suffice to say that science itself would not be possible if it did not presuppose the undeniablity and veracity of the Law of Causality.

If you maintain any position other than this I shall simply ask:

What caused you to come to this conclusion? :confused:

Indeed, but causes (as defined by science) have to meet certain criteria in order to acknowledged as causes (namely, they must be physical).

I find this humorous quatona, and I really wont be able to reply to many more of these assertions. But for you, I shall simply say:

1. What dictionaries and science textbooks did you get this definition from?

2. What caused you to type your completely groundless definition of what a cause is? Was it not the thoughts that you had in your mind regarding your idea of what a cause is?

3. If so, then what are your thoughts, what are your ideas that form in your mind? Are they physical??? If so, how much do they weigh, and what shape are they? How many atoms are in them?? :confused::doh:


You are invited to present this "scientific evidence" - but please don´t mistake philosophical assumptions for "scientific evidence".
Last time I checked there was no such scientific evidence. All there was was something science couldn´t explain, and some philosophers who tried to fill this gap with whatever euphemism for "I don´t know".
Well, I have told you before: You are highly invited to present this "scientific evidence", so that we can put it to scientific scrutinity. You may be a nice guy and all, but nonetheless I hope you´ll understand that I don´t take your word for it.

Refer to the apologia quatona, that is what it is for. Saying that there is no scientific evidence for this apologia is really making you appear more and more disingenuous.

Rest assured I have never forgotten about it. However, you seem to forget that my purpose in responding to your "apologia" is not to disprove whatever god (or that metaphysical personal beliefs are irreconcilable with scientific work) - it is to check whether your reasoning is sound. The fact that your entire argument is a trainwreck doesn´t prove or disprove anything beyond this fact. I am fully aware of that.

You saying the apologia is a trainwreck does nothing to refute the facts stated therein.
 
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Elioenai26

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Non-sequitur. Presumes dualism at the very least, which is evidence-free.

And where have you observed something impersonal bringing something personal into existence Gadarene?

Do you not know that an impersonal entity does not have volitional capabilities?

I thought you would not have made such a blunder by maintaining something so clearly fallacious! :doh:
 
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Elioenai26

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The Law of Causality refers to things. Stuff that happens to things in space and time.
If at a point in the 'past' (I use this term colloquially, of course), there was nothing, it is obvious that the Law of Causality could not be applied.

Causes require things to exist.

I have already responded to this to two other people and I shall give you the same response.

First let me say this, your re-wording of the Causal Principle is unwarranted, ungrounded, and simply wrong. The Causal Principle states that whatever begins to exist, has a cause for it's existence. Nowhere is it explicitely stated that this is in reference only to "things" which I take you mean only physical or material entities.


This is often espoused as a refutation of the cosmological argument but is faulty and ungrounded for several reasons:

1. You must provide a good argument with evidence that proves your assertion that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities.

In other words, you have the awesome burden of proof in proving that that causes and effects must always be related by a relation of temporal priority. But I will save you from the leg work, this cannot be proven.

2. Secondly, even if it were possible for you to provide a good argument that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities, there is nothing incoherent or contradictory with maintaining that the very moment God created the universe (time, space, and matter) was the exact same moment that time began! The cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e. all time, all space, and all matter) were simultaneously temporally related.

In fact, there is no other logical way that it could happen. An illustration may help to explain this simple premise.

A heavy ball, say, a bowling ball, is placed on a pillow or a cushion. The exact moment that the ball (cause) is placed on the cushion, a depression (effect) is made in the cushion. This happened simultaneously.

This conclusion is warranted by reason and logic. It would be illogical and irrational to say that somehow the ball actually did not cause the depression at the exact moment that it was placed on the cushion.

Therefore, we have every reason to believe that the Cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e time, space, and matter) are related temporally in that the Cause effected the effect simultaneously.
 
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quatona

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[/size][/size]

To answer this, I believe it shall suffice to say that science itself would not be possible if it did not presuppose the undeniablity and veracity of the Law of Causality.
Do you even read my posts? Science doesn´t deal with the beginning of existence, hence axioms that deal with the beginning of existence are completely useless to science.

If you maintain any position other than this I shall simply ask:
What caused you to come to this conclusion? :confused:
Sir, you were the one posting an "apologia" in which you maintained certain positions. In order to put the validity of them to scrutinity I don´t have to maintain any position on the matter. And your permanent attempt to shift the roles is noted but rejected.




I find this humorous quatona, and I really wont be able to reply to many more of these assertions. But for you, I shall simply say:
1. What dictionaries and science textbooks did you get this definition from?
You know what I find curious: That you put out an alleged scientific axiom, I keep asking you time and again where in science textbooks I can find this axiom, you either ignore this request or give me some "suffice to say..." evasion. You have made the claim, you go ahead.

I have told you why science necessarily and naturally implies "physical" when it deals with causes: because that´s the field of science.

2. What caused you to type your completely groundless definition of what a cause is?
I have typed the answer to your question a couple of times now. Why would I repeat it if you simply ignore it, anyway?


Was it not the thoughts that you had in your mind regarding your idea of what a cause is?
Yes. Did my thoughts create matter into existence? No.

3. If so, then what are your thoughts, what are your ideas that form in your mind? Are they physical???
No, but they have physical causes. And that´s how far science goes.
If so, how much do they weigh, and what shape are they? How many atoms are in them?? :confused::doh:
What is it with you and being confused and facepalming about your own strawmen?




Refer to the apologia quatona, that is what it is for. Saying that there is no scientific evidence for this apologia is really making you appear more and more disingenuous.
Except that I didn´t say that. I am asking you to already produce the scientific evidence you keep claiming there is.



You saying the apologia is a trainwreck does nothing to refute the facts stated therein.
And it was not meant to - as is clear from the context of the statement I made.
However, claiming that your apologia is full of facts and scientific evidence for its conclusion does nothing to establish that it does, either.
 
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Elioenai26

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Do you even read my posts? Science doesn´t deal with the beginning of existence, hence axioms that deal with the beginning of existence are completely useless to science.

So are you maintaining that the universe does not have a cause for it's existence?

Sir, you were the one posting an "apologia" in which you maintained certain positions. In order to put the validity of them to scrutinity I don´t have to maintain any position on the matter. And your permanent attempt to shift the roles is noted but rejected.

Whenever you make a statement about something, you are doing so from a particular position. So to say that you do not have to maintain a position is contradictory to your actions in engaging in this discussion.

You know what I find curious: That you put out an alleged scientific axiom, I keep asking you time and again where in science textbooks I can find this axiom, you either ignore this request or give me some "suffice to say..." evasion. You have made the claim, you go ahead.

http://www.commonsensescience.org/p...e][bless and do not curse]_v7n3_causality.pdf
 
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quatona

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So are you maintaining that the universe does not have a cause for it's existence?
No, I am maintaining what I said:
"Science doesn´t deal with the beginning of existence, hence axioms that deal with the beginning of existence are completely useless to science."



Whenever you make a statement about something, you are doing so from a particular position. So to say that you do not have to maintain a position is contradictory to your actions in engaging in this discussion.
No, you are simply misunderstanding what I am doing here. Unlike you I am not promoting a particular position.
You are the one who offered us an "apologia". You made the claims. You defend your position. That´s how it works when you step up and make claims.
 
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Elioenai26

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No, I am maintaining what I said:
"Science doesn´t deal with the beginning of existence, hence axioms that deal with the beginning of existence are completely useless to science."




No, you are simply misunderstanding what I am doing here. Unlike you I am not promoting a particular position.
You are the one who offered us an "apologia". You made the claims. You defend your position. That´s how it works when you step up and make claims.

Ok. Since we know the universe came into existence, what caused it to come into existence?
 
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quatona

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Thanks.

Hm, that appears to be an interesting melange of science and philosophy.
It´s pretty long. Can you point me to the part where your idea of the Law of Causality (you know, the one that goes "everything that has a beginning...") is introduced and where it is established that it is consensually accepted as an axiom in science?

Interestingly, the article seems to list and describe all sorts of varying ideas about causation throughout history in science or philosophy. Actually, it doesn´t look to me as if yours of all is the one that turns out to be the scientific axiom you claim it to be. But I love surprises.
 
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quatona

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Ok. Since we know the universe came into existence, what caused it to come into existence?
Who said the Universe came into existence? Not me.
Who said that the Universe - if it came into existence - needed a cause? Not me.

I notice you didn´t answer my post #77. For to continue the discussion meaningfully it´s absolutely crucial that you resolve the issue pointed out there. Your continuous application of a double standard is not a basis for a fruitful conversation. Please, tell me which way you want to go.
 
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Archaeopteryx

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The below is a response to Beechwell who argued the same thing as you have here. I shall refer you to it.

**This is often espoused as a refutation of the cosmological argument but is faulty and ungrounded for several reasons:

1. You must provide a good argument with evidence that proves your assertion that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities.

In other words, you have the awesome burden of proof in proving that that causes and effects must always be related by a relation of temporal priority. But I will save you from the leg work, this cannot be proven.

This is quite bizarre. Your argument is based on the concept of causality which is useful in the material universe. I don't think I have to demonstrate that causality only applies in time. It is assumed in the very use of the word "cause" that we are talking about something happening at some time. By contrast, the burden of proof is on you to show that the concept can be applied in a meaningful way to something that lacks time.

2. Secondly, even if it were possible for you to provide a good argument that the causal principle only operates between temporally related entities, there is nothing incoherent or contradictory with maintaining that the very moment God created the universe (time, space, and matter) was the exact same moment that time began! The cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e. all time, all space, and all matter) were simultaneously temporally related.

In fact, there is no other logical way that it could happen. An illustration may help to explain this simple premise.

A heavy ball, say, a bowling ball, is placed on a pillow or a cushion. The exact moment that the ball (cause) is placed on the cushion, a depression (effect) is made in the cushion. This happened simultaneously.

This conclusion is warranted by reason and logic. It would be illogical and irrational to say that somehow the ball actually did not cause the depression at the exact moment that it was placed on the cushion.

Therefore, we have every reason to believe that the Cause (God) and the effect (the universe i.e time, space, and matter) are related temporally in that the Cause effected the effect simultaneously.**

That is a bad analogy. The ball was placed on the pillow at some time. The event you are describing is not something timeless. If there were no temporal relation, then we would be just as warranted in concluding that the pillow depression caused the ball!

The Principle of Uniformity is used when seeking to understand an occurance that is not repeatable, i.e. a crime. Forensic scientists often utilize this principle when seeking to discover the perpetrator of a crime.

The Big Bang was a non-repatable phenomenon and we were not there when it happened, but we can infer with accuracy what it's cause must have been by knowing that things today do not come into existence uncaused. We can look at the effect which is the universe and make many well informed inferences as to what could have caused this occurance.

Therefore the Principle of Uniformity is one means in which we come to understand what this Causal entity must have been.

But you are breaking that principle by positing the existence of a past cause unlike every other cause that we observe today.

I thank you for the picture, but I do not see how geometric shapes are pertinent to this discussion.

It was to demonstrate that a system need not have the same properties as all of its parts. You claimed that everything we see in the observable universe, from houses to galaxies, have the property of being caused. You then argued that the universe must also have been caused because it is the sum of all its parts, which are caused. As you see with the triangles, the object as a whole (the hexagon) need not have the same property (triangle shape) as all of its parts.

When you use the word "nothing" you are using it according to a naturalistic understanding of the word. You are saying that if something is immaterial, then it is nothing. However this is clearly false, for example:

I'm taking immaterial to mean nothing because there is nothing to which I can attach the word "immaterial" to.

1. The ideas that you had in your mind which caused you to type what you did in this post is not a material entity, but I dare say you would not maintain that your ideas were "no-thing". They are very much something, they are ideas!

2. Your mind is not a material entity, but I dare say you would not maintain that your mind is "no-thing", it is something!. It is your mind!

Not buying this dualism.

3. The Law of Gravity is not a material entity, it nontheless is a very real something: It is an undeniable, unbreakable law which, if you try to disprove by jumping off of a sky scraper, you will not end up breaking the Law of Gravity, but yourself, thereby proving the law really is something!

That doesn't make gravity immaterial.

So we see from the above that it is very logical, reasonable, and in fact necessary we understand that many things are not made of matter, but are nontheless real in the sense that they exist and are effectual.

Gravity is only effectual so long as there is matter. The mind is only effectual so long as there is matter to it - the brain. The moment you take away all matter, where is gravity? It's gone. The moment you take away the matter of the mind, where is the mind? It is gone.
 
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Elioenai26

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Thanks.

Hm, that appears to be an interesting melange of science and philosophy.
It´s pretty long. Can you point me to the part where your idea of the Law of Causality (you know, the one that goes "everything that has a beginning...") is introduced and where it is established that it is consensually accepted as an axiom in science?

Interestingly, the article seems to list and describe all sorts of varying ideas about causation throughout history in science or philosophy. Actually, it doesn´t look to me as if yours of all is the one that turns out to be the scientific axiom you claim it to be. But I love surprises.

Premise 1

Consider first premise

1. According to premise 1, there are two kinds of things: things which exist necessarily and things which are produced by some external cause.

Let me explain.

Things that exist necessarily exist by a necessity of their own nature. It’s impossible for them not to exist. Many mathematicians think that numbers, sets, and other mathematical entities exist in this way. They’re not caused to exist by something else; they just exist necessarily.
By contrast, things that are caused to exist by something else don’t exist necessarily. They exist contingently. They exist because something else has produced them. Familiar physical objects like people, planets, and galaxies belong in this category.

So premise 1 asserts that everything that exists can be explained in one of these two ways. This claim, when you reflect on it, seems very plausibly true. Imagine that you’re hiking through the woods and come across a translucent ball lying on the forest floor. You’d naturally wonder how it came to be there. If one of your hiking partners said to you, “Don’t worry about it! There isn’t any explanation of its existence!”, you’d either think he was crazy or figure that he just wanted you to keep moving. No one would take seriously the suggestion that the ball existed there with literally no explanation.

Now suppose you increase the size of the ball in this story to the size of a car. That wouldn’t do anything to satisfy or remove the demand for an explanation. Suppose it were the size of a house. Same problem. Suppose it were the size of a continent or a planet. Same problem. Suppose it were the size of the entire universe. Same problem. Merely increasing the size of the ball does nothing to affect the need of an explanation. Since any object could be substituted for the ball in this story, that gives grounds for thinking premise 1 to be true.

It might be said that while premise 1 is true of everything in the universe, it is not true of the universe itself. Everything in the universe has an explanation, but the universe itself has no explanation.
Such a response commits what has been aptly called “the taxicab fallacy.” For as the nineteenth-century atheist philosopher Arthur Schopenhauer quipped, premise 1 can’t be dismissed like a taxi once you’ve arrived at your desired destination! You can’t say that everything has an explanation of its existence and then suddenly exempt the universe. It would be arbitrary to claim that the universe is the exception to the rule. (God is not an exception to premise 1: see below at 1.4.) Our illustration of the ball in the woods shows that merely increasing the size of the object to be explained, even until it becomes the universe itself, does nothing to remove the need for some explanation of its existence.

One might try to justify making the universe an exception to premise 1. Some philosophers have claimed that it’s impossible for the universe to have an explanation of its existence. For the explanation of the universe would have to be some prior state of affairs in which the universe did not yet exist. But that would be nothingness, and nothingness can’t be the explanation of anything. So the universe must just exist inexplicably.
This line of reasoning is, however, obviously fallacious because it assumes that the universe is all there is, that if there were no universe there would be nothing. In other words, the objection assumes that atheism is true. The objector is thus begging the question in favor of atheism, arguing in a circle. The theist will agree that the explanation of the universe must be some (explanatorily) prior state of affairs in which the universe did not exist. But that state of affairs is God and his will, not nothingness.
So it seems that premise 1 is more plausibly true than false, which is all we need for a good argument.
 
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Elioenai26

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You have to make up your mind whether an explanation concerning the universe must conform with the laws observed within the universe, or whether this is not a requirement for the explanation.
So far you change the horses midstream:
You start by excluding certain explanations for the reason that they violate the laws observed within the universe.

Explain where and how I have done this.

When (after long winded portions of irrelevance) you present your explanation you suddenly don´t have a problem with the fact that your explanation violates those laws just like all the other explanations do.

How does it violate "those laws"? You will have to be specific sir, just saying my position violates "those laws", is vague.

It´s like when you have to employ a secretary, there are 5 persons who apply. You interview the first four of them, and send them home because they have no high school diploma. The fifth person doesn´t have an high school diploma, but now you say "Who says a secretary needs a high school diploma? And, besides, there´s no other person left. So I´ll take him."
Now, when it´s about employing people, your inconsistency is your own business and no skin of my nose.
However in logic it´s fatal.

Point out the fatality in my logic.

Now, pick one of the options and apply it consistently. The bad news is: You won´t end up with a proof (because either premise can not be substantiated), the good news is: I can take it seriously.

The universe began to exist, therefore it must have a cause. God created the universe. This is my position. It is the best explanation for the data.
 
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