Then obviously you have not heard many people's take on free will. The argument from fatalism that is the argument you are basically presenting defines free will in that sense. That view of free will is known as libertarianism and is even held by some evangelical Christians. I'm not saying that's what free will means I'm saying usually according to the argument presented that's how the advocate defines free will.
I would say that part of free will is the ability to make choices, though I think that is a rather simple definition. I believe free will is the ability to act how we desire apart from external and internal factors that would otherwise prevent or force one to act.
That's a great definition of free will. And one that excludes omniscience. If a decision has been pre-ordained, which would be a necessity if an omniscient being were to exist, then one does not have the freedom to act how they desire apart from factors that prevent or force them to act. The way you seem to want to describe it is essentially that such factors would be not be noticed by the one making the decision, so that person would have an illusion of free will. But if some being knows the decision that will be made, then there can be only one decision that will be made, and thus there is no freedom to make such a decision.
I don't see how free will isn't involved as I've described to how I believe...
I'm not contradicting myself. First, if God has foresaw the future what He has foreseen has not actually happened yet, so a decision has not actually been made in reality but as been perceived of by God that it will be made. Moreover, the desicion God has foresaw is the free will decision that my parents, not anyone else, will make. The 'prediction' doesn't make the future happen it is simply that: a prediction of what will happen.
If it is just "prediction" and not foreknowledge, then such a being would not be omniscient.
So no, there is no logical contradiction just a misunderstanding on your behalf. No fallacy as you have not even began to show one.
I have shown it multiple times now the logical fallacy you are employing. Just repeating this logical fallacy of yours doesn't eventually make it right.
Free will as defined in the above post is consistent with omniscience as again it is my parents that made the choice that arouse from their own minds and doing and God's knowledge did not conflict with that choice or acting.
Again, if they make a choice where they had more than one option and were truly free to choose either one, then such a god could not have foreknowledge of what they would choose. If he did foreknowledge, and thus omniscient, then they arent really free to choose. They may have some sort of illusion as such, but if such an omniscient being exists then the decision was already made. They just have this nice feeling that it came from their doing.
Of course, I dont believe that that is the case, I should point out. I dont believe in such an omniscient being and therefore I dont have this logical contradiction in my thinking.
My parents acted how they wanted to and thus of their own will.
I agree. Then again, I dont believe in an omniscient overlord in the sky.
Maybe, but what you say free will means is pretty dry. I have not come up with any new definitions but have asked you if your definition of free will was the one of libertarianism, of which I did not come up with. So if you think this is some battle and you are winning, I would tend to think you are the one training your brain to think so.
Nice try. Actually the logic is pretty straightforward. Free will and omniscience cannot co-exist. It is in trying to convince yourself otherwise that the logic becomes convoluted and nonsensical.
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