You highlighted the word "is" as if it was significant. Do you still think it is significant?
"
THIS my body". Same thing.
If the eating of the Passover meal served to identify the Israelite with the redemption from Egypt, so does this ‘eating’ and ‘drinking’ convey the benefits of Jesus’ paschal sacrifice to those who share his table.
If this phrase were metaphorical, you've got a problem when connecting it to 1 Corinthians 11:27, where Paul says that if one eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner he will be guilty of the Body and Blood of the Lord, just like if one is really guilty of another’s body and blood in pretty much any type of culture, even to this day and age. So how could one be guilty of murder if the bread is merely a symbol of Christ? He can't, except Paul says he is.
Plus, when someone calls themselves "bread", it is pretty obvious they are not being literal.
Yes and it 'should' have been likewise pretty obvious to them if He meant it symbolically but they, unlike yourself, who actually understood the language and the context in which it was spoken, didn't. This is why the Jews ONLY murmured because He said that He had come down from heaven and not because He said He was bread. John 6:42
However, starting in the next verse, Jesus answers these objections then once He finished, He speaks of a bread that He is yet to give. The Jews’ understood that he is now speaking in a literal sense, and object accordingly. "How can this man give us His flesh to eat?"
Simply put, they first objected because of what they knew was symbolic, and now they object to what His second statement means because they KNEW He was speaking literal of Himself. The point being that if Christ had been speaking in a metaphorical sense at this precise moment, this would have been the '
perfect' time to clarify His intentions. But He only reiterated what He had first said and what they had first believed they meant with these words:
"Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you..."
"For my flesh is food indeed, and my flesh is drink indeed."
The entire passage is completely clear of His intentions and the message it's conveying, even when observing the Jews understanding of the laguage it was spoken in, regarding when He's speaking literal or symbolically. Only those who begin with a mindset of "It's metaphorical" will force it to mean just that.
Have you noticed that in John 6 there is no actual bread or wine present. Hmmm....some communion service.
Why would there be. 'Actual' Communion was initiated at the 'Last Supper'. Your point proves nothing.
I'll trust the Gospel writers over them any day.
Except you interpret what they say, which makes a world of difference. So you may not be actually 'trusting' the message but missing it, as you are in John 6.