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BigBadWlf
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As pointed out by Foundthelight We are free from the Levitical Law in Christ. http://www.christianforums.com/showpost.php?p=32232781&postcount=38No, I'm saying when a person unilaterally uses any part of the Bible to justify something that's eisegetically found therein, it's not an appropriate use of scripture.
Yet, as noted, Leviticus is routinely used to condemn gays and lesbian and to justify hate and discrimination against them.
You defended the use of the verses of Leviticus with the assertion that some people get it wrong But only some.
Which brings us here when I posed the question regarding your defense of the use of Leviticus to justify hate and discrimination So when a racists uses Genesis 9:20-27 to justify and glorify racism your approve? you side stepped the question and sort of hinted that those who use the above verses of the bible to justify racism are wrong leaving the original question of shy is it acceptable to cherry pick bible verses to justify prejudice against homosexuals but not so when cherry pick bible verses are used to justify racism. If as you are implying those using Genesis 9:20-27 to justify prejudice are wrong then are not those using Leviticus 20:13 to justify prejudice equally wrong?
This is what you are saying here is it not. Those individuals who use the bible to justify personal prejudice and discrimination are wrong and that it is not an appropriate use of scripture. This would of course include a huge number of posters in this thread.
Another ad homian attack.So let me get this straight. You have a problem with people who use eisegetical readings of the Bible to justify hatred and discrimination, so therefore anyone who calls something a sin is eisegetically reading the Bible?Or is it just on this specific issue that you stumble?
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