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Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?
Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?
Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.
What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.
Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.
Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.
Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?
Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.
What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.
Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.
Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.
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