Who is the Bible Meant For?

[newton3005]

Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?

Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?

Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.

What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.

Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.

Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.

 

[HTacianas]

Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?

Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?

Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes Go as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.

What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.

Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what I the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.

Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.

You seem to be hung up a bit on Hebrews 6:1. Why is that?

 

[d taylor]

-​

The Gospel of John is specifically written for people who have not yet believed in Jesus for God's free gift of eternal Life.

 

[eleos1954]

Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?

Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?

Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.

What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.

Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.

Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.

The ceremonial law (those associated with the sanctuary system) written by Moses and put in the side of the ark are the laws that were nailed to the cross. The tablets of stone (10 commandments) placed inside the ark under the mercy seat. It is obvious they are
separate laws.

The earthly sanctuary system became (and is) unnecessary after the crucifixion of Christ, He was the final sacrifice for all ... for all time ... He became our high priest and ministers from the sanctuary in heaven (not made by man .... the real sanctuary in heaven)

James 2:10 - if you read further down he gives a couple examples of laws and they are referring to the 10

People who lump in the 10 and the ceremonial laws together are in great error ... the assumption as being for the Jews only.

Not so ... the 10 are eternal law and have always been and will always be (ie satan and the fallen angels sinned against God) . The 10 represent Gods perfect character of which is unchangeable. Jesus was/is the law incarnate.

God/Jesus can not judge without law .... some say no law and love only ... the 10 are laws of love .... when kept perfectly they produce love (and only done so by Jesus) God/Jesus IS love.

If you love me you will keep my commandments. Kept out of love (what motivates us) .... through the loving work (sanctification) of the Holy Spirt in those who are willing and is ongoing throughout ones earthly life.

 

[newton3005]

James 2:10 - if you read further down he gives a couple examples of laws and they are referring to the 10. People who lump in the 10...

***The 10 what? Interesting that you don’t assert that it’s the 10 Commandments, you just assert that it’s the “10.” Is there a reason for that? And if James 2:10 says whoever keeps “the whole law” but stumbles, he is guilty of all of it, then why doesn’t HE refer to “the whole law” as the '10 Commandments'? Seems the only answer is that it’s because James 2:10 is referring to more than just the 10 commandments when he mentions “the whole law.”

Among the commentators, Barnes' Notes on the Bible says, “ The whole law here means all the law of God; all that he has required; all that he has given to regulate us in our lives.” If James “whole law” is just the 10, Commandments if you will, then why doesn’t BARNES' NOTES say something like ‘The whole law here means the 10 Commandments’?

We can surmise that Barnes’ Notes says the whole of God’s Law is all He has required, including all He’s given to regulate our lives. Since the Bible is the Word of God, included in the Bible is Hebrews 6:1 which implies that the ceremonial Law of the Old Testament is no longer required as it was before Lord Jesus came on the scene. Why? Because we now have Lord Jesus.

One may wonder at what is written, that the ceremonial Law was nailed to the cross along with Jesus. Seems Jesus’ disciples, and God Himself to the extent He allows us to reason via Isaiah 1:18, could have been less harsh in the expression used; it could have been said something like, ‘The ceremonial Law was carried back to God when Jesus rose to Him.’ Perhaps the ‘nailed at the cross’ expression was first used to gain the attention of those that Jesus disciples chose to become Christians. Perhaps it was thought that the end of the ceremonial Law expressed any other way, like it going with Jesus up to God, would not be believed by those who had yet to believe the Resurrection but who may have been aware that Jesus was nailed to the cross.

 

[Mark Quayle]

Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?

Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?

Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.

What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.

Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.

Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.

You seem to only consider a few alternatives to the use of the word, "for", in your OP Title. But I consider that since the Word of God is the Word of God, then it is relevant to everything from the beginning to the end, and so to everyone. There is nobody who escapes its condemnations, blessings and its predictions. It may not be, in one sense, "for" the one who ends up in hell. It may not be, in one sense, "for" the one who doesn't hold to its precepts, or its God. Nevertheless, it does speak of them and to them.

But more to the point, I guess: It is itself the truth, and there is no other frame of value, or even reality, apart from that truth, except in the imaginations that will rudely be destroyed, sooner or later, for every person imagining themselves to be of substance apart from the reality of the Word of God.

 

[Soyeong]

Who is the Bible meant for for? Some may see it as a trick question, perhaps in the minds of those who take the Bible for granted. They may say, ‘The Bible is for everyone.’ Would you believe them? What if the same person who says ‘The Bible is for everyone,’ also says something you know for a fact is not true? Would it make you wonder just who ‘everyone’ is that the person refers to? What if that person says certain parts of the Bible are for certain people, and other parts are for other people? Would you believe them?

Is there anywhere in the Bible that parses its Verses, so they’re meant for certain people? Well, let’s see...2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. So, we can infer, at least, that all Scripture is for the man of God. Can anyone else read the Scriptures? As an analogy, Black’s Law Dictionary was written for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in law, that an attorney may be complete, equipped for every good work in law. Doe that mean that everyone else is forbidden to read it? Does Black’s Law Dictionary forbid everyone else to read it?

Anyway, 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 says that ALL Scripture is for a person who believes in God. Some may say that if someone who isn’t aware that God exists should start reading the Bible, they will be under a curse to abide by everything the Bible says, including to love God with all their heart, soul and mind and to love their neighbor as they love themselves. Considering the benefits the Bible describes God as offering if we so abide, in Passages including Deuteronomy 28:1-14, that’s not a bad deal it seems.

What’s that? You say Deuteronomy is in the Old Testament, and you ask if a ‘person of God’ needs to abide by the Old Testament as well? Do we need to re-read 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 regarding the magnitude of the Scriptures to abide by? Granted Verses such as Hebrews 6:1 seems to contradict verses such as Matthew 5:17-18, which refers to the Old Testament. We can debate whether that’s true, but the fact is it’s part of all Scripture that 2 Timothy 3: 16-17 refers to.

Concerning the question of who the Bible is for, well, Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 says to his disciples to go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation, such that whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned. The gospel is in the Bible, which 2 Timothy 3:16 says is the breath of God. And what is the Gospel except everything Jesus says? And everything Jesus proclaims includes what’s in the Old Testament.

Some may argue that Hebrews 6:1 says Christians need not bother pursuing the ceremonial Law that is in the Old Testament. Actually, that Verse is spoken to the Jews themselves, but does that matter? The Book of Corinthians was spoken to Corinthians, and the Book of Colossians was spoken to Colossians and so on. Does it matter, considering what 2 Timothy 3:16 says? Fact is, the Bible exists for our understanding and love of God, and it exists for those who want to understand and love God. Do people need to abide by the ceremonial Laws of the Old Testament? James 2:10 implies we should, if our inclination is to abide by even one Law in the Old Testament. But this is an argument for another day.

The Bible teaches how to believe in God and it is for everyone even if it is not addressed to everyone. Likewise, the Gospel is for everyone. God's blessing and curses are intrinsic to the action itself, kind of like exercising or smoking, where someone will be blessed or cursed by doing those things regardless of whether or not they have been instructed to do or refrain from doing them. Likewise, people will be blessed for obeying the Mosaic Law and cursed for not obeying it regardless of whether or not they have been commanded to obey it and regardless of whether or not the Bible is for them.

In 2 Timothy 3:15-17, it refers to holy writings that Timothy had available to him since childhood, at which point none of the books of the NT had yet been written, so it could have only been referring to the OT. The things that the OT is profitable for are all in regard to our conduct and the code of conduct in the OT is the Mosaic Law, so that is primarily what Paul was referring to as being profitable for those things.

Nothing in the Bible should be interpreted as contradicting other parts of the Bible. There is nothing in Hebrews 6:1 that contradicts Matthew 5:17-18 or that speaks against obeying anything that God has commanded. Dead works are those that lead to death, which are in transgression of the Mosaic Law, not the works that God said lead to life in obedience to it. The Bible never lists which laws are ceremonial and never even refers to that as being a category of law, so that is a concept that you made up. The Bible repeatedly states in both the OT and the NT that the way to love God is by obeying His commandments, which does not exclude any of His commandments.