Jesus used the bible (actually scrolls) that was current and understandable in his era: the Hebrew Bible (known today as the Old Testament). More accurately it was the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the ancient Hebrew and Aramaic. What he didn't use was a version of God's word that was written in an archaic language that required a third mental "translation" into the current language of his day.
We shouldn't do that either. For example, Jesus said "Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven." (Matthew 19:14, KJV) Why would Jesus want little children to suffer?? No person in their right mind wants children to suffer!
But wait, you might say, "suffer" does mean that at all, it means "allow" in modern English, so the phrase means "allow little children to come to me". So why not use a translation that means exactly what it says rather than the King James version? This additional translation into the English that we all read, hear, speak, and understand (or whatever language is closest to the person's native language) is not the best way to go.
As an example, your signature says "For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent." Would you translate that for me please? I'm quite certain that the result will be quite different from what modern translations have, and I trust their scholarship over your subjective interpretation.
God is not the author of confusion. I would much rather trust teams of scholars that have the best knowledge of the ancient languages and the best knowledge of contemporary English (thought and language) than to adhere to a translation that is 400+ years old and requires additional translation by the modern reader who is neither trained nor equipped to do so.
