That is what I thought.Sorry. Typing error on my part. I meant to say that it was practiced among the Jews.
Why wasn't it practiced in Asia Minor? The Romans controlled the area, for the most part but there were Jews in Macedonia, Rome, Asia Minor, etc... When Paul addressed a Church in a city, he was aware that there were Christians from several cultures in those cities and that his letters were passed around to surrounding cities.But Paul wasn't addressing Gentiles in Africa or the Middle East. He was addressing those in Asia Minor and Italy where it was not practiced.
No, the early Christian Church never practiced sola scriptura.Never? Now you are the one who is saying things that just are not true.
The definition? The OT allowed for men to have multiple wives. It allowed men to divorce their wives. I wouldn't call it a definition though. Every culture can apply their terms to what a marriage is.So it was allowable in ancient scripture? You now admit that the definition of marriage DID change.
Paul is addressing Christians in an area which contained people from many cultures including Jews. Whenever Paul went into a community he first sought out the synagogues and then went to the Gentiles.And, again, Paul is addressing Gentiles who did not practice polygamy
Jesus is also addressing marriage and in his words we can find clues regarding what a marriage was for him. What we cannot find is Jesus or any disciple speaking of a male followers with many wives.But Jesus was addressing divorce, not polygamy.
And again, you don't know what cultures may have been present. Polygamy was practiced in ancient Greece until the Roman Empire outlawed it.And, again, Paul is addressing people who did not practice polygamy.
Where did I claim that it was?Please shwo me anything in the New Testament that specifically disallows polygamy. If it is there, as you claim, it shouldn't be hard to locate it.
Well, I try not to disappoint.
Good question, you should start a thread and see if I join it.That can't possibly be true, since you disappointed me by not answering my two questions, which you'll have to do if you want to convince me that - as you say - my opposition to gay marriage is only a matter of something I like or don't like. You remember the questions?
1) Under the re-definition, how is a non-sexual friendship between two adults (or even two children, since sex isn't necessary in marriage under the redefinition), ontologically different than a married couple (either homo or heterosexual)?
You seem really worried about sex and the law. You should start a second thread about that as well.2) If marriage is not related to sexuality (of any type) under the re-definition, then how does marriage expanded to two men or women of the same sex constitute raising their sexuality from 2nd-class status?
may as well.Here, I'll even throw in a third question:
Sure, if two adults want to get married that's as much "in love" as the State needs to know.3) Since that the two be adults, and that they be in love, are the only two criteria you've insisted on, it follows that the state must be competent to define love. How would you define love in the law?
Good question, you should start a thread and see if I join it.
You seem really worried about sex and the law. You should start a second thread about that as well.
Sure, if two adults want to get married that's as much "in love" as the State needs to know.
...there's a rule that says I have to be interesting to you or curious on CF? Could you post where that can be found? I'd like to see it.I'm sorry, but you seem to have no curiosity to speak of, so I really doubt you'd be any more interesting on a different thread.
that sounds like something you sould also discuss on your thread.I'm worried about the law being based on objective and real things, not your biases - yes, what you are proposing is completely and solely based on your own biases. If you want to say "any two people can be married" than you need to have a rational reason for limiting the definition to two, rather than three or four, and you likewise need to have a reason why - if you separate marriage from sexuality, what it is that makes a marriage different from a non-sexual relationship. If you can't answer those, then you're proposing something completely irrational; you're asking the state to subsidize something that is really nothing (but the state has no interest in subsidizing nothing).
Ok, if you are expected as a citizen to pay taxes here you should have the same rights as everyone else. (you can marry the person you love so should they) to me? that seems pretty simple.Then defend your definition,
all very interesting topics but not really what this thread is about.and tell me why it has to be limited to two, or to adults (since sex is not involved in the re-definition, there's no problem with sexual mores).
...there's a rule that says I have to be interesting to you or curious on CF? Could you post where that can be found? I'd like to see it.
that sounds like something you sould also discuss on your thread.
Ok, if you are expected as a citizen to pay taxes here you should have the same rights as everyone else. (you can marry the person you love so should they) to me? that seems pretty simple.
all very interesting topics but not really what this thread is about.
tulc(notices you seem to be worried about sex again)
The homosexual agenda is to compel society that their lifestyle as much as normal as heterosexuality. Then they can promote recruitment in schools by their propaganda. Some atheistic liberals support them in order to undermine Christianity.
...so...I'll take this to mean you're not starting other threads to discuss what you want to discuss?There is a rule of human nature that says that a prospect has to interest the person doing the action, and the prospect of having another thread where you've desired not to engage your brain isn't interesting me.
Evasion doesn't help your position - but I should probably thank you, since your absolutely pathetic response two posts ago proved my point to at least one other person that the proponents of the re-definition generally can't think critically on the subject.
When the majority agrees with you, you can afford not to think, but I couldn't live like that.
There are two glaring problems with this (of course, I expect you to continue to evade so as to avoid having to think rationally). The first problem is that - despite your whining - there is no difference in rights between Nebraska and Iowa, only a difference in definition. In Iowa, any man (of sound mind) can be married to a man or a woman - whether that man is homosexual or heterosexual; in Nebraska, any man can be married to a woman - whether he is homosexual or heterosexual. Likewise, the definition for when a person can get a driver's permit is different in both states: 14 for Iowa, 16 for Nebraska; but the 14-year-old in Nebraska is not being denied his rights.
The second problem is with whast you are calling love. When I asked you to define ''love'' in the law, you said ''if two adults want to get married'' then that's all the state needs. But that doesn't say anything because, in another response, you claimed that being in love is necessary for marriage to be recognized; now you're saying that to ask to be married is all the ''love'' that is required. That's circular; all that you've said is ''people who ask to be married should be married.'' In other words, ''love'' is a meaningless word, and your definition doesn't need or even really use it. Then, you apply irrational and biased limitations on that definition. You're effectively saying, ''all people who ask to be married should be married, except for three or more people, or children's, or a human and a company/legal firm." When I challenged you to justify this exclusion, you say ''make a new thread.'' Anyone who evades questions like that appears to be afraid of rational thought on the subject, and unable to actually justify the definition. The law must be based on rational and defencable principles, because, when the law is challenged, it won't be able to say ''just make a new thread.''
sexuality is a part of the definition of marriage, so of course I bring it up. This is really very silly of you; trying to avoid thinking about your irrational biases about what marriage should be, and trying to put the problem on me. It's your problem, not mine. You can't even defend the most basic parts of your definition.
But if you want another thread, then I challenge you to a formal debate on the subject. If you don't take it, fine, I don't much care since I'm quite confident you'll only evade some more.
Why are Seventh Day Adventists so obsessed with the RCC?
Who cares if the Papacy is becoming more liberal, it doesnt effect me.
Which fails to explain the large number of Christians that support legal rights of homosexuals.
Also, no. Most homosexuals don't really care if society thinks they are normal, they only want the same rights legally, as the rest of their peers. And they certainly don't need to "recruit" anyone, in schools or not.
...many, if not most, do try to convince people that they may be homosexuals or bisexuals (recruitment, if rarely ever mentioned in name).
Sexual orientation doesn't work like that.
If someone is attracted exclusively to people of the opposite sex to themselves, they're heterosexual.
If someone is attracted exclusively to people of the same sex as themselves, they're homosexual.
If someone is attracted to people of both sexes, they're bisexual.
Nobody has to "convince" people that they're heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual*. They either are, or they aren't. You can't change who a person is attracted to by "convincing" them. There is no "recruitment" involved.
*Yes, there are other possibilities (pansexuality and asexuality, for a start; there may be others, but those are the two obvious ones), but I'm keeping it simple.
A Christian must choose God and his word over what their peers or the media and spokesmen for that movement tell them is acceptable.