No Divorce and Remarriage for Adultery (L)

mikesayen

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I have heard that a very conservative interpretation of Christ's words on divorce is to say that He allowed for divorce in the case where a bride is found not to be a virgin, and that otherwise, He did not allow for it. The reason is Christ said, "except it be for fornication".

It seems that John Piper holds to a similar view. He doesn't say anything about divorce in the case where a man marries a woman and finds out she is not a virgin. He gives the example of Joseph and Mary, where Joseph at first had in mind to put her away privately, thinking she had given away her virginity to someone else while being betrothed to him. This is a short video. Any comments?

Does the Bible allow for divorce in the case of adultery? - YouTube
Oh, I have a lot of comments. I actually was speaking to a pastor who was working under John Piper. He held the same view. There are a few flaws in this interpretation. Although, it is true that Joseph was able to put away Marry because she was thought to be unfaithful during their betrothal Deut. 22. And it does say he was a righteous man (according to the Law of Moses). So, the law said if a betrothed wife, was raped in the countryside, where when she screemed for help, there was no one to hear her, she was not to be stoned for doing so. Mary went to visit Elizabeth, the Word says, in the countryside. So, Joseph was minded to put her away secretly and not make a public example of her.

There are a few laws of Moses that speak about divorce. One, if a slave wife (an additional wife to your sons free-wife) was neglected in food, clothing or sexual duties then she was to be free from the marriage and you are not to sell her. It also (Deut. 21) talks about a wife that you took when you went to war. She was to have her hair cut and nails trimmed, and morn the loss of her mother and father but after that, you can go into her and she will be your wife. But, if she does not please you, you are to set her free because you humbled her.

But, the main thing is, if Jesus was referring to Deut. 22 in Matt. 19:9 than what about the Jewish Scribes and Pharasees who asked Jesus about Deut. 24? What was the answer to that law? or the Law of Ezra 10:3 in divorcing your wife and children if they were of the lands you were commanded not to intermingle? Also, God divorced Israel in Jer. 3:8-9. God was not betrothed to Israel then, but was fully married becoming their "husband". The betrothal part was in the desert (Jer. 2:2) after they were lead out of the land of Egypt. For their relationship changed to a full marriage when Joshua lead them into the Promised Land!

So, John Piper's theory, and others like him, have to many holes to logically make since.

I hope this helps!
p.s. your video is not working.
 
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