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I have presented evidence from Scripture relevant to the issue. >>
You have presented a SELECTION of evidence but not ALL the evidence.
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I focused my attention on the prophets mentioned in both Mt. 23 & Rev. 18 that when viewed in an unbiased manner is conclusive evidence.>>
It is impossible to focus on only a portion of the evidence "in an unbiased manner" while ignoring the rest of the evidence. Such "focus" is, by definition, biased. What you have done is the equivalent of withholding evidence in a court of law.
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Israel was to remain pure as she had a husband. God was not married to the nations. From the perspective of the New Testament prophets, she was guilty of adultery with foreign kings causing them to enter into fornication with her. She was playing the role of a harlot with the nations. >>
Please cite the New Testament prophets who pronounced her guilty of adultery.
You are not providing scriptural evidence here; you are stating your opinion.
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So, from the perspective of the inspired writers, Jerusalem was not just a "backwater of the Roman empire." Why do you insist on downplaying the role of Israel? Why not develop the perspective of Scripture? >>
I am presenting to you the perspective of scripture which you insist on ignoring.
The Babylon of Revelation, by the description provided by that inspired writer, cannot be Jerusalem because her destruction would not cause the cessation of all trade on earth. It would not cause the cessation of trade because Jerusalem was relatively unimportant with regard to the world merchants of that time. The total destruction of Jerusalem would hardly cause a ripple in the accounts of the merchants except for the depreciation of the price of slaves because of the glut of slaves available after its fall.
Why do you insist on ignoring that stated, inspired, fact?
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Again, Scripture was not written from a Roman perspective.>>
I didn't suggest that it was.
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But, I don't think it's unreasonable to think ..... >>
Your speculation is not evidence.
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From John's perspective, were merchants involved in selling and trading goods in Israel? >>
That is not what the scripture says.
It does not say that merchants were "involved." It says that after the destruction of Babylon "
no one buys their cargo any more". (Rev 18:11) That means that all trade stopped at the destruction of Babylon.
Did all trade among all the merchants of the world suddenly stop at the destruction of Jerusalem?
No. It certainly did not.
It makes no difference to me whether or not you wish to hold to your very biased view.
Since you have made it abundantly apparent in your posts that you are not open to even consider any other view but yours, I see not reason to continue.
Have a nice day.