NotUrAvgGuy
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- Jul 19, 2015
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I would suggest the issue is that Scripture nowhere teaches Mary was immaculately conceived nor was it necessary. As the author pointed out, if God had prevented Mary's parents from passing on original sin to her, God could have, in the same way, protected Jesus from original sin. It was not necessary for Mary to have been born without original sin. Given that, and given the lack of Scriptural support for the doctrine of her immaculate conception, there is no reason to believe in it. It is a man-made doctrine meant to elevate Mary in a way Scripture does not.The issue here is that to prevent the transmission of original sin is an act of grace and salvation. Jesus being the savior, cannot himself have needed to be saved. To prevent transmission of sin from Mary to Jesus would necessitate that Jesus was saved by grace.
Catholic and Orthodox teaching do not claim that Mary did not need to be saved. In Catholic doctrine, the immaculate conception of Mary is viewed as an act of Grace, merited by Jesus Christ as all Grace is, by which Mary was saved from sin.
The only difference is that she was saved from sin in the sense that she was prevented from receiving original sin, while we are saved from sin by being delivered from it after.
When you ask "have they thought this through" you should probably make sure you actually understand what they are actually saying and believing.
Catholics fully agree with this. Mary's true blessedness is not that she bore Christ in the flesh, which is truly a great honor, but rather that she is first in the order of Grace, and that she most closely of any human being knew, and loved our Lord and that her whole life was built around saying yes to God.
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