If the utterance in tongues is for God to man,the value of tongues with interpretation is equal to prophecy (1 Cor.14:5) and the Church is edified in a different way.
1 Cor 14:5 I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy. The one who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues, unless someone interprets, so that the church may be edified.
If you look at this passage again you will find that Paul does not suggest that the Holy Spirit (not the Father) will speak to man. People have misconstrued the Greek
oikodomen which means edification, to somehow imply that Paul is saying that the Holy Spirit will also speak to man. If this is the only passage that we use to support this strange practice then those churches who still allow this to occur need to stop it as soon as possible.
One of Paul’s key themes in 1 Cor 14 is with intelligibility; as the Holy Spirit will only communicate using inarticulate tongues (unintelligible language), then we must follow up each occurrence of congregational tongues with an articulation of each tongue that will enable the rest of the congregation to be ‘edified’ through their understanding of what the Holy Spirit has said to the Father.
Tongues are not always addressed to God. All the verses that give the impression that speaking with tongues is to God indicate that speaking with tongues may take the form of praising. They do not demonstrate that they must do so.
Can you give an example from the Scriptures of where the Holy Spirit has ever directed a word in tongues to man; if you can, you would be the first who has even been able to do so.
As Paul tells us that the purpose (or content) of what the Holy Spirit says to the Father within the congregational setting is in “praise or thanksgiving” (14:16) and that even Acts 2:11 demonstrates that the Spirit “speaks of the wonders of God”; then how can we conclude from these passages that the Holy Spirit will ever direct a word to either the congregation or to an individual member?
Paul is saying that tongues without interpretation must be to God because no one understands it,but he is not saying that with interpretation tongues cannot be the vehicle of a message from God to man. In v.21 he refers to God using another tongue to speak to people.
The first thing that needs to be pointed out is where does Paul ever suggest that tongues can ever be “a message from God to man”, Paul does not even hint that this is at all possible.
The passages (pericope) of 1Cor 14:20-25 goes to the very core of Paul’s concern with intelligibility within the congregational setting. Paul is making reference to the invading Syrian army that conquered Jerusalem, where the rampaging soldiers were understandably giving commands to the population in a language that their victims did not know. Besides causing confusion amongst the Jews, it also frustrated the invaders, where more often than not the next command that they gave was with the slice of their swords.
Paul is pointing out that as the unknown tongues of the Syrian invaders caused confusion and bewilderment amongst those who did not understand what was being said, the same goes for the unsaved and cessationist visitor, where their lack of understanding toward “the things of the Spirit” will most likely serve to harden them against the Gospel when they encounter everyone speaking in unintelligible tongues during times of praise and worship.
So Paul is not suggesting that “God is speaking to people”, where we would never suggest that the cursing and abusive words that the Syrian invaders were directing to the people of Israel were in anyway the ‘words of God’; but Paul is wisely condemning the practice where an entire congregation begins to speak in ‘unintelligible words of praise and thanksgiving’ to the Father in the presence of those who do not understand Spiritual things.