Full Preterism On The Last Trumpet

[parousia70]

Yes...on PRETERISM!

Rather, your own statements that you take OT scriptures speaking of such things as SYMBOLIC, "Artistsic License", proves that you are the one with the inconsistent interpretation, based solely on your man made bias.

 

[parousia70]

HORSE FEATHERS!

The parts of the Olivet Discourse that have come to pass have done so LITERALLY, & there's NO valid reason to not believe the rest won't cometa pass JUST-AS-LITERALLY!

As I have patiently, consistently shown you, we have EVERY reason to understand Apoclayptic language in the exact way the Prophets and apostles understood and used it with, as you said and believed. "Artistic License".

We actually have no reason to believe that the precedented OT use of this language suddenly, without warning or instruction from the pages of scripture, switches to a POLAR OPPOSITE meaning when we find it in the NT. None whatsoever.

I'm confident our readers can see both our positions and decide which one is scriptural.

Oh By the way, That you believe some of the Olivet is already fulfilled means you subscribe to some degree of preterism.... i know you think that's a dirty word, but preterism IS what you are professing when you make such claims. Just FYI.

Consistent Futurists reject the notion that ANY of the Olivet has been fulfilled. ONLY preterists believe that.

 

[robycop3]

The Judean rebellion covered off everything that the the YOU would see. That YOU being John, Andre , James and Peter, Mark 13:3. Things that THEY would see happened literally as well. God shook the heaven for the last time and Jesus came on the clouds just as He said He would. That literally happened too, except no mortal can see such things. It is seen only by those in the spiritual realm of heaven.

Remember when you tell me that my bible verse is wrong because you have a bible verse that contradicts it there is no proof that the bible is the culprit. What it really means is that one of us is interpreting the bible wrong. That brings it down to a 50% chance it is me or a 50% chance it is YOU! In that regard YOU have just been given 2 posts explaining the mach of the Olivet to the first century and you can't counter either of them.

Well, now, whadda we have here? Two well-meaning but incorrect prets using the TWO MAIN EXCUSES prets use for not being able to account for the prophesied events they SAY have happened, in HISTORY...

1.) The words of the prophecy are symbolic/allegorical.

2.) The events occurred in the SPIRIT WORLD.

Sorry, gents, but no matter how many feathers you glue omto those two hippos, THEY STILL WON'T FLY!

A.)The LITERAL occurring of the of the prophesied events of the Olivet Discourse that HAVE already occurred(the destruction of Jerusalem & the temple, war & rumor of war, the trampling of Jerusalem underfoot by gentiles, the persecutions of Christians, etc.) shows that ALL of them will be LITERAL. There's NO valid reason to believe otherwise!

B.) There's not ONE quark of SCRIPTURE saying those events occurred or will occur in the spirit world! Jesus caused His words to be written to MAN, not spirits! Besides, Jesus saidall the tribes of the EARTH shall mourn at His return.

So, the two main pret excuses go "POOF!" in the light of God's truth!

Gentlemen, you really needta toss your Alcazar stuff out the nearest window, and read God's word while PRAYING for the HOLY SPIRIT to guide and teach you the TRUTH, abandoning all false, man-made doctrines such as preterism. Scripture-study without PRAYER is merely reading.

 

[robycop3]

As I have patiently, consistently shown you, we have EVERY reason to understand Apoclayptic language in the exact way the Prophets and apostles understood and used it with, as you said and believed. "Artistic License".

We actually have no reason to believe that the precedented OT use of this language suddenly, without warning or instruction from the pages of scripture, switches to a POLAR OPPOSITE meaning when we find it in the NT. None whatsoever.

I'm confident our readers can see both our positions and decide which one is scriptural.

Oh By the way, That you believe some of the Olivet is already fulfilled means you subscribe to some degree of preterism.... i know you think that's a dirty word, but preterism IS what you are professing when you make such claims. Just FYI.

Consistent Futurists reject the notion that ANY of the Olivet has been fulfilled. ONLY preterists believe that.

The TRADITIONAL definition of preterism is the belief that (A.) ALL Biblical prophecy has already been fulfilled (Full preterism) or (B.) all has been fulfilled but the return of Jesus. (Partial preterism)

It's not at all anathema to me to be called a "fractional praeterist" by the STRICT definition of "praeter", which refers to "past" as I know some prophesied events of the Olivet Discourse HAVE occurred. Only an unlearned dysfunctional would deny that Jerusalem & the temple were destroyed in 70 AD, given the vast documentation and the physical, empirical evidence of the ruins of the temple.

But mosta the events are yet to occur, such as the great trib and physical, visible return of Jesus-not to mention the coming of the 'beast', marka the beast, etc. To say Nero was the 'beast' is phony as a Ford Corvette.

 

[Justme]

Well, now, whadda we have here? Two well-meaning but incorrect prets using the TWO MAIN EXCUSES prets use for not being able to account for the prophesied events they SAY have happened, in HISTORY...

1.) The words of the prophecy are symbolic/allegorical.

2.) The events occurred in the SPIRIT WORLD.

Sorry, gents, but no matter how many feathers you glue omto those two hippos, THEY STILL WON'T FLY!

A.)The LITERAL occurring of the of the prophesied events of the Olivet Discourse that HAVE already occurred(the destruction of Jerusalem & the temple, war & rumor of war, the trampling of Jerusalem underfoot by gentiles, the persecutions of Christians, etc.) shows that ALL of them will be LITERAL. There's NO valid reason to believe otherwise!

B.) There's not ONE quark of SCRIPTURE saying those events occurred or will occur in the spirit world! Jesus caused His words to be written to MAN, not spirits! Besides, Jesus saidall the tribes of the EARTH shall mourn at His return.

So, the two main pret excuses go "POOF!" in the light of God's truth!

Gentlemen, you really needta toss your Alcazar stuff out the nearest window, and read God's word while PRAYING for the HOLY SPIRIT to guide and teach you the TRUTH, abandoning all false, man-made doctrines such as preterism. Scripture-study without PRAYER is merely reading.

There sure is no evidence that it did not occur in the spiritual realm so I can accept what the bible says. If you can't, so be it . I sure don't care if you do or not.

 

[robycop3]

There sure is no evidence that it did not occur in the spiritual realm so I can accept what the bible says. If you can't, so be it . I sure don't care if you do or not.

And I sure don't care you CANNOT prove a single pret assertion. They're all man-made and phony. There's not one quark of SCRIPTURE saying those events are to occur in the spirit world. Jesus is now in the spirit world, so He's not gonna come back to it; He's gonna come back to EARTH.

"HISTORY AND REALITY trump all preterist assertions."

 

[Justme]

And I sure don't care you CANNOT prove a single pret assertion. They're all man-made and phony. There's not one quark of SCRIPTURE saying those events are to occur in the spirit world. Jesus is now in the spirit world, so He's not gonna come back to it; He's gonna come back to EARTH.

"HISTORY AND REALITY trump all preterist assertions."

This is a very common myth among the people who lean toward futurism. They believe that Jesus is going to physically return to earth...He is not. Jesus will return to you and me and Uncle Bert but NOT physically to planet earth Here are a few verses from the bible to consider to determine if what I say has any merit or any reason to be consi------------------red.

 

[parousia70]

Well, now, whadda we have here? Two well-meaning but incorrect prets using the TWO MAIN EXCUSES prets use for not being able to account for the prophesied events they SAY have happened, in HISTORY...

1.) The words of the prophecy are symbolic/allegorical.

YOU ARE NO LITERALIST Roby... stop falsely claiming you are. Yet you believe that same language IS used in the OT spiritually, allegorically, with as you said "Artistic License". You claims of wooden literalsim have been thoroughly examined and found wanting.

The Language of Stars Falling, Sun and Moon Darkening, Sky/Heavens Receding, mountains melting, God being SEEN Riding clouds etc is ALWAYS used by the prophets allegorically, and you can't show otherwise.

Otherwise you would Show us your scriptural instruction to apply a POLAR OPPOSITE interpretation to THE SAME LANGUAGE when we find it in the NT.
You can't.

2.) The events occurred in the SPIRIT WORLD.
There's not ONE quark of SCRIPTURE saying those events occurred or will occur in the spirit world!

Oh Boy...
Roby, The cloud coming of Rev 1:7 is depicted fully in Revelation 14:14-20 -- the passage shows us unquestionably an event that takes place in the heavenly realms. The Spirit World.

The cloud-coming of Revelation 1:7 that "every eye would see" is shown in Revelation 14:14-20 to be an event that occurs in the heavenly realms. As the passage reveals, Christ's actions and commands in the heavenlies result in various tribulation-period disasters that transpire on earth. Simply put, Revelation 14:14-20 is the cloud-coming that "every eye would see." This is significant, for St. John is not describing the coming of Christ as some visual spectacular with cumulus clouds in the skies overhead, but as the coming of Yahweh himself, making Christ equal with the Father.

Next, As I have pointed out many many times to you but you flat out either ignore, or worse yet claim the Bible is wrong about, Yahweh came many, many times -- Jesus' coming is a mirror action, proving his equality and divinity with Yahweh.
Yahweh came down and shot his arrows at Saul and his armies, destroying the earth and the heavens at the time (2 Sam 22:8-16); Yahweh came down and shot his arrows over Greece (Zechariah 9:13-14); Yahweh came down riding a cloud to beat up on Egypt (Isa 19:1-2); Yahweh made bare his Holy Arm in the eyes of all nations (Isa 52:10); Yahweh came to the Israelites at Sinai and Seir with Ten Thousand of His Saints and led a march on the fields of Edom (Deut 33:2; Judges 5:4-5); Yahweh destroyed the universe when he judged Israel through Babylon (Jer 4:22-30) and did so again when he judged Egypt by Babylon (Ezekiel 32:2-8). So also did Christ do these things when "the Lord of the Vineyard came" in AD 66-70 and was to them the Stone that crushed them to powder and removed the Kingdom of God from them (see Matthew 21:40-45).

Besides, Jesus said all the tribes of the EARTH shall mourn at His return.

Please note that Revelation 1:7 is a quotation of a passage from Zechariah -- namely, Zechariah 12:10-14. The mourning of the tribes in that Zechariah passage is a mourning of the tribes of Israel. Case closed. To try and make the "tribes of the land mourning" mean some OTHER tribes than the ones Zechariah meant (and, thus St. John who quotes him) is very bad hermeneutics. I highly recommend you read Zechariah 12:10-14 and recognize that St. John is quoting him in Revelation 1:7.

Furthermore, the Zechariah 12:10-14 passage is centered geographically on the city of Jerusalem. So when St. John quotes Zechariah in Rev chapter 1 we can be sure that he has a focus similar to Zechariah 12:10-14.

The bible is the best interpreter of the bible.

Toss out your newspapers and Fox News Roby... stick to scripture and you'll be just fine.

 

[robycop3]

This is a very common myth among the people who lean toward futurism. They believe that Jesus is going to physically return to earth...He is not. Jesus will return to you and me and Uncle Bert but NOT physically to planet earth Here are a few verses from the bible to consider to determine if what I say has any merit or any reason to be consi------------------red.

So Jesus lied in Matt. 24:29-30 and similar verses?

 

[robycop3]

YOU ARE NO LITERALIST Roby... stop falsely claiming you are. Yet you believe that same language IS used in the OT spiritually, allegorically, with as you said "Artistic License". You claims of wooden literalsim have been thoroughly examined and found wanting.

The Language of Stars Falling, Sun and Moon Darkening, Sky/Heavens Receding, mountains melting, God being SEEN Riding clouds etc is ALWAYS used by the prophets allegorically, and you can't show otherwise.

Otherwise you would Show us your scriptural instruction to apply a POLAR OPPOSITE interpretation to THE SAME LANGUAGE when we find it in the NT.
You can't.



Oh Boy...
Roby, The cloud coming of Rev 1:7 is depicted fully in Revelation 14:14-20 -- the passage shows us unquestionably an event that takes place in the heavenly realms. The Spirit World.

The cloud-coming of Revelation 1:7 that "every eye would see" is shown in Revelation 14:14-20 to be an event that occurs in the heavenly realms. As the passage reveals, Christ's actions and commands in the heavenlies result in various tribulation-period disasters that transpire on earth. Simply put, Revelation 14:14-20 is the cloud-coming that "every eye would see." This is significant, for St. John is not describing the coming of Christ as some visual spectacular with cumulus clouds in the skies overhead, but as the coming of Yahweh himself, making Christ equal with the Father.

Next, As I have pointed out many many times to you but you flat out either ignore, or worse yet claim the Bible is wrong about, Yahweh came many, many times -- Jesus' coming is a mirror action, proving his equality and divinity with Yahweh.
Yahweh came down and shot his arrows at Saul and his armies, destroying the earth and the heavens at the time (2 Sam 22:8-16); Yahweh came down and shot his arrows over Greece (Zechariah 9:13-14); Yahweh came down riding a cloud to beat up on Egypt (Isa 19:1-2); Yahweh made bare his Holy Arm in the eyes of all nations (Isa 52:10); Yahweh came to the Israelites at Sinai and Seir with Ten Thousand of His Saints and led a march on the fields of Edom (Deut 33:2; Judges 5:4-5); Yahweh destroyed the universe when he judged Israel through Babylon (Jer 4:22-30) and did so again when he judged Egypt by Babylon (Ezekiel 32:2-8). So also did Christ do these things when "the Lord of the Vineyard came" in AD 66-70 and was to them the Stone that crushed them to powder and removed the Kingdom of God from them (see Matthew 21:40-45).



Please note that Revelation 1:7 is a quotation of a passage from Zechariah -- namely, Zechariah 12:10-14. The mourning of the tribes in that Zechariah passage is a mourning of the tribes of Israel. Case closed. To try and make the "tribes of the land mourning" mean some OTHER tribes than the ones Zechariah meant (and, thus St. John who quotes him) is very bad hermeneutics. I highly recommend you read Zechariah 12:10-14 and recognize that St. John is quoting him in Revelation 1:7.

Furthermore, the Zechariah 12:10-14 passage is centered geographically on the city of Jerusalem. So when St. John quotes Zechariah in Rev chapter 1 we can be sure that he has a focus similar to Zechariah 12:10-14.

The bible is the best interpreter of the bible.

Toss out your newspapers and Fox News Roby... stick to scripture and you'll be just fine.

First...I never said there were NO symbolic passages in Scripture, especially OT prophecies. But the Olivet Discourse was mostly an answer to His disciples' questions. And what HAS cometa pass from it already has been LITERAL. So, the rest will be JUST-AS-LITERAL.

Were not Jerusalem & the temple LITERALLY destroyed? Have there not been wars & rumors of war continually since Jesus was here? Is Jerusalem not trampled underfoot by gentiles to this very day? Are Christians not being persecuted, with some being beheaded to this very day? ARE ALL THESE THINGS NOT LITERAL?

And Jesus did NOT say 'tribes of Israel' in Matthew. He said 'all the tribes of the EARTH'. That leaves NO people out. ALL shall see His return.

Again, history and reality prove preterism wrong.

 

[Justme]

So Jesus lied in Matt. 24:29-30 and similar verses?

You had two posts describing Matt 24. You never dealt with anything in them.... would you care to illustrate anything WRONG in either of those posts.
Matt 24:29 and 30 is good reason to understand the spirit realm events... do you expect to see the heavens shaking if you are not already dead and IN heaven?

Here is a verse for you to consider.
1 cor 15
45 So also it is written, “The first man, Adam, became a living soul.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.

Jesus appears in the spiritual realm of heaven.. Jesus is eternal as are all things in heaven so:
2 COR 4
18 while we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen; for the things which are seen are temporal, but the things which are not seen are eternal.

Do you think I should see that in history Roby?
Justme

 

[parousia70]

First...I never said there were NO symbolic passages in Scripture, especially OT prophecies.

There you go.
Why especially OT Prophesies? Where does scripture teach you to interpret this language symbolically in the OT, then switch to a polar opposite literal interpretation when you find the SAME LANGUAGE in the NT?

But the Olivet Discourse was mostly an answer to His disciples' questions.

Maybe you can show us where Jesus answered their question about WHEN the temple would be destroyed?

Were not Jerusalem & the temple LITERALLY destroyed? Have there not been wars & rumors of war continually since Jesus was here? Is Jerusalem not trampled underfoot by gentiles to this very day? Are Christians not being persecuted, with some being beheaded to this very day? ARE ALL THESE THINGS NOT LITERAL?

Again, the LANGUAGE of Stars falling, Moon Bleeding, Heavens Quaking, Mountains melting, & God RIDING CLOUDS and BEING SEEN BY ALL EYES is ALWAYS used metaphorically in scripture. ALWAYS.

You need to demonstrate where scripture teaches you to apply a polar opposite LITERAL interp to this langauge.

You haven't yet, but I'm ever the optimist.

So far, all you have to offer is "Just look around.. that stuff hasn't happened, it just couldn't have"

Show us the scriptural instruction to interpret that language symbolically in the OT but Literally in the NT.

And Jesus did NOT say 'tribes of Israel' in Matthew. He said 'all the tribes of the EARTH'. That leaves NO people out. ALL shall see His return.

Actually, it's Tribes of the Land, (greek "ge"), the Land of Israel is the Context for they are the "land ("ge") with Tribes... the rest of the earth is scripturally referred to as Nations, not tribes... Clearly the context is Israel. Jesus in Matthew and John in Revelation are quoting Zechariah 12:10-14

Your 21st century Goggles need calibration, for they are clouding your ability to interpret the language the way the first receivers did, instead you are imposing you modern bias upon ancient texts, in complete absense of ANY scriptural instruction to do so.

 

[robycop3]

There you go.
Why especially OT Prophesies? Where does scripture teach you to interpret this language symbolically in the OT, then switch to a polar opposite literal interpretation when you find the SAME LANGUAGE in the NT?



Maybe you can show us where Jesus answered their question about WHEN the temple would be destroyed?



Again, the LANGUAGE of Stars falling, Moon Bleeding, Heavens Quaking, Mountains melting, & God RIDING CLOUDS and BEING SEEN BY ALL EYES is ALWAYS used metaphorically in scripture. ALWAYS.

You need to demonstrate where scripture teaches you to apply a polar opposite LITERAL interp to this langauge.

You haven't yet, but I'm ever the optimist.

So far, all you have to offer is "Just look around.. that stuff hasn't happened, it just couldn't have"

Show us the scriptural instruction to interpret that language symbolically in the OT but Literally in the NT.



Actually, it's Tribes of the Land, (greek "ge"), the Land of Israel is the Context for they are the "land ("ge") with Tribes... the rest of the earth is scripturally referred to as Nations, not tribes... Clearly the context is Israel. Jesus in Matthew and John in Revelation are quoting Zechariah 12:10-14

Your 21st century Goggles need calibration, for they are clouding your ability to interpret the language the way the first receivers did, instead you are imposing you modern bias upon ancient texts, in complete absense of ANY scriptural instruction to do so.

I believe that the LITERAL FULFILLMENT of those parts of the Olivet Discourse that HAVE been fulfilled clearly establishes the FACT that the rest of the prophecies will be fulfilled just-as-literally. There's absolutely NO indication that Jesus switches over to allegorical language in the middle of His Discourse.

 

[parousia70]

I believe that the LITERAL FULFILLMENT of those parts of the Olivet Discourse that HAVE been fulfilled clearly establishes the FACT that the rest of the prophecies will be fulfilled just-as-literally. There's absolutely NO indication that Jesus switches over to allegorical language in the middle of His Discourse.

Except for the FACT that such language of Stars falling, mountains melting, heavens shaking, Moon Bleeding, Sun Blackening, God Riding A Cloud, etc..is ALWAYS used by the Prophets in metaphorical fashion. Jesus Christ (an His disciples) were not ignorant of this FACT, as you would have us believe they were.

David was LITERALLY delivered out of the Hands of his enemy Saul, but the Universe Collapsing, and God Riding Clouds, shooting arrows, smoking nostrils, etc.. that David Described that took place at that time were Symbolic. (2 Sam 22)

The Medes LITERALLY invaded Babylon, but the Universe collapsing events that the Prophet Isaiah Stated would happen at that time were ALLEGORICAL. (Isaiah 13)

Babylon LITERALLY Invaded Egypt, but the Celestial events of the Sun going dark and moon not giving its light that The Prophet associated with that invasion were ALLEGORICAL (Ezek 32)

The List goes on and on and on and on... Literal temporal events of Nations falling in armed conflict with other nations is described By the Prophets of God in Metaphorical fashion using the common Hebrew Idioms of Stars falling, mountains melting, sun going black, Heavens quaking & dissolving, foundations of earth uncovering, God riding clouds, drawing His sword, destroying enemies with His Brightness, etc, etc....

Jesus was not as ignorant of this language and How the prophets of God were inspired to use it, as you would have us believe He was. He most certainly did not use this language in POLAR OPPOSITE fashion to the way all the prophets before Him did.

 

[robycop3]

Except for the FACT that such language of Stars falling, mountains melting, heavens shaking, Moon Bleeding, Sun Blackening, God Riding A Cloud, etc..is ALWAYS used by the Prophets in metaphorical fashion. Jesus Christ (an His disciples) were not ignorant of this FACT, as you would have us believe they were.

David was LITERALLY delivered out of the Hands of his enemy Saul, but the Universe Collapsing, and God Riding Clouds, shooting arrows, smoking nostrils, etc.. that David Described that took place at that time were Symbolic. (2 Sam 22)

The Medes LITERALLY invaded Babylon, but the Universe collapsing events that the Prophet Isaiah Stated would happen at that time were ALLEGORICAL. (Isaiah 13)

Babylon LITERALLY Invaded Egypt, but the Celestial events of the Sun going dark and moon not giving its light that The Prophet associated with that invasion were ALLEGORICAL (Ezek 32)

The List goes on and on and on and on... Literal temporal events of Nations falling in armed conflict with other nations is described By the Prophets of God in Metaphorical fashion using the common Hebrew Idioms of Stars falling, mountains melting, sun going black, Heavens quaking & dissolving, foundations of earth uncovering, God riding clouds, drawing His sword, destroying enemies with His Brightness, etc, etc....

Jesus was not as ignorant of this language and How the prophets of God were inspired to use it, as you would have us believe He was. He most certainly did not use this language in POLAR OPPOSITE fashion to the way all the prophets before Him did.

So, Jesus suddenly changed horses in mid-stream, going from literality to allegory in the middle of His Olivet Discourse? Horse Feathers!

That's a preterist excuse they use to try to cover the FACT those events can't be accounted for in history. Reminds me of Jehovah Witnesses trying to cover their latest failed prophecy that Jesus would return on X date.

Simple TRUTH is, most of the events of the OD are still future. You CANNOT prove differently. Preterism is totally the invention of MAN.

 

[Justme]

So, Jesus suddenly changed horses in mid-stream, going from literality to allegory in the middle of His Olivet Discourse? Horse Feathers!

That's a preterist excuse they use to try to cover the FACT those events can't be accounted for in history. Reminds me of Jehovah Witnesses trying to cover their latest failed prophecy that Jesus would return on X date.

Simple TRUTH is, most of the events of the OD are still future. You CANNOT prove differently. Preterism is totally the invention of MAN.

Matthew 24 was explained to you twice.... TWICE..... read it and comment on it and we can start from there.

Justme

 

[parousia70]

So, Jesus suddenly changed horses in mid-stream, going from literality to allegory in the middle of His Olivet Discourse? Horse Feathers!

So, Jesus was totally ignorant of the precedented usage of the langauge of cosmological disturbance that the Prophets of God established before Him, or, He just decided willy nilly to use that same langauge a polar opposite fashion to the precedent set by the prophets??

Platypus Quills!

 

[robycop3]

So, Jesus was totally ignorant of the precedented usage of the langauge of cosmological disturbance that the Prophets of God established before Him, or, He just decided willy nilly to use that same langauge a polar opposite fashion to the precedent set by the prophets??

Platypus Quills!

Being GOD, Jesus can do as He chooses.

The literalness of the fulfillment of Jesus' OD prophecies which have already cometa pass established the literalness of the others. You can deny this all ya wish, but the other events of the OD have simply not yet occurred. You cannot avoid that fact no matter what.

 

[parousia70]

Being GOD, Jesus can do as He chooses.

The literalness of the fulfillment of Jesus' OD prophecies which have already cometa pass established the literalness of the others. You can deny this all ya wish, but the other events of the OD have simply not yet occurred. You cannot avoid that fact no matter what.

Unfortunately for your position, it's NOT a fact.

As I have demonstrated, David was LITERALLY saved from the hands of His enemy Saul, yet that Literalness in no way established any "literalness" to the language of Cosmological disturbance that David cited as synonymous with it.
The Bible interprets itself.

Your "premise" has been debunked thoroughly.

 

[robycop3]

Unfortunately for your position, it's NOT a fact.

As I have demonstrated, David was LITERALLY saved from the hands of His enemy Saul, yet that Literalness in no way established any "literalness" to the language of Cosmological disturbance that David cited as synonymous with it.
The Bible interprets itself.

Your "premise" has been debunked thoroughly.

No, it hasn't been debunked at all.

What HAS been debunked is the pret notion that the 70 AD siege of Jerusalem was the great trib. The PROOF is obvious...Jesus did NOT return soon after that siege & the world continued right on afterwards, same as it did before then. When Jesus returns, He will drastically alter the nations and rule the world from Jerusalem.