Right, so, whatever the court feels is an unenumerated right is or isn't based upon their opinion of what's a "clear historical background". Which means that the court can do whatever it wants.
Of course this simply weakens ALL established precedents for those rights and puts them at the whims of the court no matter how many times other courts have said otherwise. If you have 5 justices agree or disagree they can strip rights at their whim and will do so using the current reasoning as precedent. Alito can not control this as he can not control the future prejudices of the court.
Well, no, because you can determine which ones have a clear historical background. Now, there are some cases where one could make a plausible argument in different directions, but abortion isn't one of them.
Additionally, if we were to not evaluate unenumerated rights based on historical background, what exactly
should we evaluate it on? There seems very little else to evaluate it on. I suppose judges could explicitly rule based on what they think
should be rights, but in doing so they just become lawmakers (except unelected ones) and we end up in the exact situation you claim a historical analysis performs, "the court can do whatever it wants."
Essentially Alito has shown precedent to be meaningless with regard to unenumerated rights.
In what way is precedent made meaningless any more than other overturning of previous decisions are? It is specifically the fact that unenumerated rights are involved?
Because if so, the Supreme Court already threw out decades worth of precedent in regards to them back in the 1930's. For a period of about 40 years (roughly 1897 through 1937) called the Lochner era, the Supreme Court held there was an unenumerated "freedom of contract" in the Constitution that the government could not interfere with. Thus all kinds of workplace regulation were struck down for violating that, such as minimum wage laws, maximum work hour laws (the eponymous Lochner v. New York was a case where a law prohibiting bakers from working more than 60 hours a week was struck down as unconstitutional), child labor laws, and so on, were struck down as unconstitutional. Again, this was the Supreme Court's position for multiple decades, that this unenumerated right existed, and it was affirmed over and over again, even by courts that had completely different members. Then starting in 1937 it (correctly) reversed course on it, negating the previous decades of precedent in regards to this unenumerated right.
Was the Supreme Court was wrong to overturn all of that precedent regarding this unenumerated right? Should we return to the Lochner era and have the Supreme Court strike down all those workplace regulation laws under freedom of contract again?