Absolutely.
Sex is a normal part of the marriage covenant.
But it is not 'required' for that covenant to exist.
Ancient Hebrew betrothal was quite binding lawfully and religiously, only ending in a formal divorcement. The covenant to be husband and wife was already in place by the time hometaking occurred.
Sex comes in for Mary and Joseph simply the same way it did for my wife and I who did not consummate for about 21-22 months after 'hometaking'.
It is simply physical and emotional expression between the man and his wife. Of course, since they are married, it goes much further than that, being as God created it, sex SHOULD create a closeness between them that resembles the oneness that Adam would have had with Eve...the foreshadow of what 'one flesh' should be.
The only thing Ive read and seen convincing evidence for is that once the Jews figured out that Joseph wasnt actually the biological father that they had even more grounds in their minds to dispute that Jesus was the Messiah.
I see no scriptural evidence that they believe that Mary was a harlot who had a son while UNmarried.
There is VERY clear evidence in scripture, tho, that the Jews DID believe (at that time) that Jesus WAS Josephs biological son.
Joh 6:42 And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?
Luk 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,
In an eternal sense, maybe not.
But if that were the case, Joseph was not even necessary for Mary to conceived as she had and then given birth.