All Generations shall call me Blessed

[Axion]

The gospel injunction of Luke 1 says of Mary "All generations shall call me blessed." Several other times in Luke Mary is additionally and particularly entitled Blessed.

Yet I noticed in the "differences" thread that some people were arguing that the Blessed Virgin Mary does not deserve to be praised! They tried to argue from modern English language dictionary definitions, that "blessed" does not mean "praised" or honoured.


But if we look to the Greek, we find that there are TWO words used for "Blessed" in the New Testament,

Makarizo (Strong 3106) the one often translated "happy"; and

Eulogio (Strong 2127), meaning to "praise, celebrate with praises, bless, or consecrate,". The word "Eulogise" comes from this word.

Which of these words is used of Mary in Luke?

Actually both words are used of Mary in Luke. A unique distinction. This fact alone discounts the argument that Mary's blessedness is of the same order as that of many other Christians. Indeed Mary is uniquely given the title blessed three times in the New Testament.

So those who seem to imagine that they please God or Jesus by attempting to demean Mary, would do very well to reflect on these things.

 

[Oblio]

Blessed and praised aren't exactly the same thing, I posted that too.


Bless means to wish someone well while praise means to magnify or glorify. All glory goes to God.

You are using performing an eisegesis (with a fundagelical slant) on Modern English words, much as you and others do with the word pray.

 

[thereselittleflower]

Did you read the first post.

This defines the actual meanings of the original Greek words used in Luke. And although one of the words translated "Blessed", may mean "to wish well", the other word used of Mary definitely does mean praise and celebrate with praises - according to the non-Catholic Strongs.

I don't know if our posts really get read or not . . if people have their minds made up about something, then no amount of evidence will be enough . .

The angel Gabriel said:

blessed art thou among women.

The word used for blessed in the Greek in this instance is (given in the first post):

Eulogio (Strong 2127), meaning to "praise, celebrate with praises, bless, or consecrate,". The word "Eulogise" comes from this word.

not

Makarizo (Strong 3106) the one often translated "happy";


Of primary importance is what a word means in Greek, not what the particular word chosen to translate the Greek word means in English . .

This is a problem for those who ignore what the original Greek words meant at the time they were penned . . the tendency to ignore this and simply pull out a contemporary English dictionary (and many times one that was not written yet when some translations were made, so they now have a different English meaning for the same word) - this creates many misunderstandings about what the Sacred Scriptures really say . .

The scriptures were not written in Enlgish . . they were written in Greek . . funny, I don't think one can use an English dictionary to learn what a Greek word means . .


But if someone doesn't want to know, they don't want to know . .. .


Peace in Him!

 

[KennySe]

I agree, all generations will call Mary blessed/happy.

The Bible does not say that she only called. "blessed/happy"

As the OP shared with us:

But if we look to the Greek, we find that there are TWO words used for "Blessed" in the New Testament,

Makarizo (Strong 3106) the one often translated "happy"; and

Eulogio (Strong 2127), meaning to "praise, celebrate with praises, bless, or consecrate,". The word "Eulogise" comes from this word.

Which of these words is used of Mary in Luke?

Actually both words are used of Mary in Luke. A unique distinction.

 

[KennySe]

Question: How many times is the Greek word kecharitomene in the Bible?

Answer: ONCE (Luke 1:28)

Which ought to imply something special about that person.

* http://www.frtommylane.com/homilies/years_abc/immaculate_conception4.htm *

 

[thereselittleflower]

Question: How many times is the Greek word kecharitomene in the Bible?

Answer: ONCE (Luke 1:28)

Which ought to imply something special about that person.

And, it is not used to describe someone . .

It is used as her NAME! A name change has been given in a sense! Mary pondered what type of greeting this was . . it was a VERY UNUSUAL greeting as this is what the angel Gabriel called her:

kecharitomene


Peace in Him!

 

[thereselittleflower]

Ok, maybe Jesus, does not say it, but the writers say it many times, and don't called her "blessed" every time.

Well, even though Jesus is not recorded saying her name, He is recorded as affirming that she indeed is blessed.

And how many times does Mary's, Jesus' mother's, name appear in the bible?


And where does it say in the bible that just because she is blessed, and that all generations will call her blessed, that everytime someone says her name the word blessed with be said with it?



Peace in Him!

 

[KennySe]

Question: How many times is the Greek word kecharitomene in the Bible?

Answer: ONCE (Luke 1:28)

Which ought to imply something special about that person.

http://www.frtommylane.com/homilies/years_abc/immaculate_conception4.htm

From Father Tommy Lane's article:

. The angel said to Mary, “Hail, full of grace!” Sometimes this is translated as “Rejoice, highly favoured one” but that is not really a good translation of the Greek in which Luke wrote his Gospel. The particular word Luke used to describe Mary as “full of grace” (kecaritwmenh) means that Mary was full of grace all her life. (This is signified by kecaritwmenh being a perfect passive particle). It means that Mary is full of grace not just at the moment the angel comes to her but that she is full of grace since the beginning of her life. He could have used a different word to show that Mary was only full of grace at that particular moment as he did when he described Stephen as “full of grace” (plhrhV caritos) only for a moment in Acts 6:8 before he was stoned to death. But Luke insists that Mary was full of grace all her life.

Kindly note that kecharitomene in Father Lane's article is written in GREEK, and when brought to CF is automatically translated as "kecaritwmenh".

To repeat myself, "Question: How many times is the Greek word kecharitomene in the Bible?

Answer: ONCE (Luke 1:28)"

 

[Axion]

Luk 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

You are saying that in the context of this verse the word "highly favoured" is used as a name change. For the pronoun her in verse 28 that is understood to be Mary from Verse 27?

As TLF says, what your version translates as thou that art highly favoured actually consist of one word in the Greek.

The Greek word used by the angel is Kecharitomene. The root of this word is Charis, meaning Grace. The prefix Ke means that the grace was already perfectly present before the angel appeared. The suffix mene means that the grace applies to the subject - Mary.

Now Charis can also be translated as favour. So Highly-favoured could be a conceivable translation - but this would only be acceptable if the word "favour" were used as a translation for "Charis" everywhere else in the New Testament. But THIS DOES NOT HAPPEN. Even those bibles which translate "Charis" as "Favour" when referring to Mary, translate it as "Grace" everywhere else. This is highly misleading because in the New Testament the word "Grace" has a particular meaning distinct from "Favour". In the New Testament "Grace" is a gift of God that saves from sin and its effects. So translating the root word any differently is wrong.

In Greek, the grammatical tenses are all-important.

Briefly then KE-CHARITO-MENE can be translated as
PERFECTLY-WITH_GRACE-ENDOWED_(PERSON)

As used in Luke, this is a title.

 

[KennySe]

Is it just me or was all of that information about kecharitomene just brushed aside?

It is not just you, Matt.

And I will NOT let it stand!!!

http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/CONGRK548.htm

OPEN IT AND SEE WHAT IS STRONG'S 5487.

See that charitoo is the root word for three other Greek words found in the Bible..

* ecaritwsen
in Ephesians 1:6

* caritoV
in Luke 4:22, John 1:14, John 1:16, Acts 14:3, Acts 15:11, Acts 18:27, Acts 20:24, Acts 20:32, Rom 5:17, Rom 11:5, Rom 12:3, Gal 1:15, Gal 5:4, Eph 1:6, Eph 1:7, Eph 2:7, Eph 3:2, Eph 3:7, Php 1:7, Heb 4:16, Heb 10:29, Heb 12:15, 1 Pe 1:10, 1 Pe 3:7, 1 Pe 4:10, 1 Pe 5:10

* kecaritwmenh
in Luke 1:28

kecharitomene/kecaritwmenh IS ONLY USED ONCE IN THE BIBLE.

***

And for those too mule-headed to open the link above, I shall explain what is found there on an easy to read chart. Easier to read than on this non-chart text.

#5487 charitoo. If you look at that Greek word in Greek LETTERS, it looks sorta like the English letters: "xapitow".

This word "xapitow" is the root for three other Greek words found in the Bible.

* "exapitwoev"
in Ephesians 1:6

* "xapitos"
in in Luke 4:22, John 1:14, John 1:16, Acts 14:3, Acts 15:11, Acts 18:27, Acts 20:24, Acts 20:32, Rom 5:17, Rom 11:5, Rom 12:3, Gal 1:15, Gal 5:4, Eph 1:6, Eph 1:7, Eph 2:7, Eph 3:2, Eph 3:7, Php 1:7, Heb 4:16, Heb 10:29, Heb 12:15, 1 Pe 1:10, 1 Pe 3:7, 1 Pe 4:10, 1 Pe 5:10

[And for the purpose of THIS thread when we discuss Luke 1:28 "full of grace"]

* "kexapitwmevn"
in Luke 1:28

The root word charitoo which in Greek Letters looks like "xapitow" is the root for kecharitomene which in Greek letters looks like "kexapitwmevn".

So what are the addititions to "xapitow" which produce the unique word
"kexapitwmevn"? ANYONE can see that "KE" is before "XAPITW" (remind anyone of "xapitow"?) and that "EVN" is the end of the word "kexapitwmevn".

What is the meaning of this one word "kexapitwmevn" is explained in detail on the links which have been provided.
Whether you decide to open those links or not, is your decision.
HOWEVER. You cannot argue against the simple Truth that kecharitomene/"kexapitwmevn" is only used ONCE in the Bible and that it means more than charitoo/"xapitow".

 

[MattMMMan17]

if it is a description, we have to recognize that it literally means Mary is FULL of God's graces. COMPLETELY. Would you even have a tiny inclination to sin if you had such a physical grace of God within you? I couldn't even imagine the feeling that would incite.

if it is a name, (which I personally do not believe), then we have to go back to recognize the heightened significance of using another name for someone in the bible.

 

[KennySe]

As TLF says, what your version translates as thou that art highly favoured actually consist of one word in the Greek.

The Greek word used by the angel is Kecharitomene. The root of this word is Charis, meaning Grace. The prefix Ke means that the grace was already perfectly present before the angel appeared. The suffix mene means that the grace applies to the subject - Mary.

Now Charis can also be translated as favour. So Highly-favoured could be a conceivable translation - but this would only be acceptable if the word "favour" were used as a translation for "Charis" everywhere else in the New Testament. But THIS DOES NOT HAPPEN. Even those bibles which translate "Charis" as "Favour" when referring to Mary, translate it as "Grace" everywhere else. This is highly misleading because in the New Testament the word "Grace" has a particular meaning distinct from "Favour". In the New Testament "Grace" is a gift of God that saves from sin and its effects. So translating the root word any differently is wrong.

In Greek, the grammatical tenses are all-important.

Briefly then KE-CHARITO-MENE can be translated as
PERFECTLY-WITH_GRACE-ENDOWED_(PERSON)

As used in Luke, this is a title.

Thank you for that analysis, Axion.

As I edited my last post, and some may have missed the editted addition to that post.

***
The root word charitoo which in Greek Letters looks like "xapitow" is the root for kecharitomene which in Greek letters looks like "kexapitwmevn".

So what are the addititions to "xapitow" which produce the unique word
"kexapitwmevn"? ANYONE can see that "KE" is before "XAPITW" (remind anyone of "xapitow"?) and that "EVN" is the end of the word "kexapitwmevn".

What is the meaning of this one word "kexapitwmevn" is explained in detail on the links which have been provided.
Whether you decide to open those links or not, is your decision.
HOWEVER. You cannot argue against the simple Truth that kecharitomene/"kexapitwmevn" is only used ONCE in the Bible and that it means more than charitoo/"xapitow".

Briefly then KE-CHARITO-MENE can be translated as
PERFECTLY-WITH_GRACE-ENDOWED_(PERSON)

http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/CONGRK548.htm

 

[KennySe]

BBAS, you sure sound "Catholic".

Good Day, RB

My gosh I would not! I would say she was Predesinated before the foundations of the world to participate in the plan of salvation, and at the same time partake in that plan that God had laid out. Talk about Blessed, Favoured, Called, Remarkable, just unreal. We all serve a great God!!

And as the original Greek text was translated into Latin in A.D. 405, we see:

Luke 1:28 (Latin Vulgate) http://speedbible.com/vulgate/

et ingressus angelus ad eam dixit have gratia plena Dominus tecum benedicta tu in mulieribus

 

[KennySe]

BBAS,
of the texts you have cited, when were those translations and printings?

I trust moreso a man who spoke those languages fluently, and who translated the Greek into Latin in A.D. 405.

Luke 1:28 (Latin Vulgate)
et ingressus angelus ad eam dixit have gratia plena Dominus tecum benedicta tu in mulieribus

And when the NEXT "Modrn New Understading of Ancient Languages" comes out, I will put more confidence in Jerome who was "there".

 

[KennySe]

St. Jerome? Who seperatd the Apachrypha from the OT, indicating secondary importance?

Jerome, who included those seven books, per the authority of the Pope. And those same 7 books were NOT called "Apocrypha, until by the authority of Martin Luther. That same Martin Luther, who removed "Hebrews, James, and Apocalypse" by his (Luther's) authority.

 

[Reformed Baptist]

I think we all agree on one thing, she was blessed.

 

[Oblio]

St. Jerome? Who seperatd the Apachrypha from the OT, indicating secondary importance?

One man's opinion, even though he be a Saint, does not Tradition make.

 

[KennySe]

KennySe, you argue, that since Jerome was closer to the NT time period and spoke languages fluently, then we can trust his him. How about, the Jews in the OT , before Christ rejected the Apachryphal books, and they spoke those languages and were closer than the Pope of Jerome's period

My faith is in the Lord Jesus and in His Church founded upon the Apostles.
Not on men outside Christianity.

Tradition, with a capital T, is not based on one Church Father.

But I still put more stock in Jerome, than in any "modern new understading" of the original texts.

 

[KennySe]

I think we all agree on one thing, she was blessed.

Blessed among women, and Blessed is the fruit of her womb.

 

[Reformed Baptist]

Agreed.