I think some good arguments can be made by looking at history, and this may be one of them but I tend to put more weight on the scripture. And yes, I know 70AD events are mostly known from history not necessarily scripture.
It looks like you have been following along with my conversation with
@Spiritual Jew and as you point out the distinction between Jew and Gentile in regards to Jerusalem being trodden under foot has nothing to do with salvation, to which I agree.
I agree with the Revelation 11:2 holy city tread under foot for 42 months being equated with Luke 21:24.
In Revelation 11:1-2 the temple of God, the altar, and the people that worship therein are measured, and the court without is not measured it is given to the Gentiles. There is clearly a difference for the Gentiles here regarding worshipping, as there was in the old covenant, the outer court was called the Court of the Gentiles.
So we have a problem if this takes place in the new covenant as there is no Jew/Gentile difference in the new covenant. If we follow
@Spiritual Jew line of thinking and say since there is a Jew/Gentile difference here it takes place outside of the church (no difference in the church) then you have the temple of God and the people worshipping therein and the court of the Gentiles all happening outside of the church. That doesn’t make sense either.
Solution, this takes place while the old covenant is still being observed, meaning it takes place prior to the old covenant vanishing.
Question, do you think the old covenant has vanished yet?