I'm not picking up what you're laying down.Wait, you've experienced being outside of time? Perhaps you misspoke.
Oz, what is it like to be a universalist?
You wrote:I'm not picking up what you're laying down.
I don't believe that I misspoke along those lines. If I did - please show me where I said that I had experienced being outside of time.
Preach Oz!Please tell me! I'm not one of them and never will be as it is not supported by the Bible. The problem, Menno, is that Calvinism cannot handle the reality of the content of 1 John 2:2 (ESV), 'He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world'. That's because they don't accept that Jesus can die for the sins of all people and yet people need to have faith - to believe (Acts 16:31).
When the point of accepting by faith the Lord Jesus Christ is distorted by Calvinism to make it unconditional election and irresistible grace, there can be no acceptance of what 1 John 2:2 (ESV) actually states.
Oz
It was mainly a rhetorical question. But I have heard atheists give this description of the Gospel, some of them were brought up in a Calvinist church and others who were seekers studying religions.
I don't know of any Calvinist who gave such an honest view of what Calvinism says when they preached or shared the Gospel as you created in #488. Actually the first time I heard the Gospel is was from a Calvinist on a one to one bases. That person didn't share with me what they really believed.
I am stating that God IS NOT held to time as we experience it on earth.Are you stating that God is held to time or are you asking if God is held to time?
You realize that 1 John 2:2 was already discussed and shown to not be about the universal "all." Yet, you desperately want it to be a universal "all" because...why?Please tell me! I'm not one of them and never will be as it is not supported by the Bible. The problem, Menno, is that Calvinism cannot handle the reality of the content of 1 John 2:2 (ESV), 'He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world'. That's because they don't accept that Jesus can die for the sins of all people and yet people need to have faith - to believe (Acts 16:31).
When the point of accepting by faith the Lord Jesus Christ is distorted by Calvinism to make it unconditional election and irresistible grace, there can be no acceptance of what 1 John 2:2 (ESV) actually states.
Oz
Unless you're an open theist, you believe that God created people He knew would go to hell. Heaven and hell have fixed numbers.
@MeenoSota did not answer my post twice. So now I am posting it again.Which post? I must have missed it, although I've been waiting for it, so I'm not sure I could have missed it.
The epistle to the Ephesians has much to say about predestination. But it is speaking about the predestination of those who are foreknown to be the elect. Election is always according to foreknowledge, both in Romans and in 1 Peter. God knows exactly all those who will respond to the Gospel and be saved, and therefore He predestines them to be perfected and glorified in Christ.Did God make a mistake in Ephesians 1?
I agree. They can't come up with one term that Calvinists redefine.
Every person falls short in understanding God. How can we not fall short.
Like Augustine before him, Calvin nailed the sovereignty of God in choosing who would be the children of God. History has proven this time and time again as humans read God's word. Pelagius and Arminius were shown to be entirely wrong. This is mainly because God's word is very clear on the matter.
Who cares, you still miss the mark. Care to stay on topic?
You realize that 1 John 2:2 was already discussed and shown to not be about the universal "all." Yet, you desperately want it to be a universal "all" because...why?
Ephesians 2 states that God gives faith as a gift. We can't manufacture it on our own power. If we could, we'd boast about it. Why do you desire to boast when God is the only one we can boast about?
You realize that 1 John 2:2 was already discussed and shown to not be about the universal "all." Yet, you desperately want it to be a universal "all" because...why?
@MeenoSota did not answer my post twice. So now I am posting it again.
From page 36, post 702
Another question 'How do you explain the verse where God tells us that He knew us before we were?"
God is obviously referring to His Omniscience. The fact that past, present and future are all known to God. God is not under 'time' as time is known by us.
Yawn...your greek is weak. [emoji41]Now do the exact exegesis of Eph 2:8-10. Your interpretation here is incorrect according to the Greek exegesis.